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Terminal Velocity

Threads - Terminal Velocity

On 4/10/2003,  Bruce Harris wrote:

I must have been out of the room when the science teacher explained terminal velocity, because it's a concept I've never totally come to grips with.

I could probably answer these questions with a few deft googles, but it's more fun to humble myself publicly, admit my ignorance and allow the wise people on the list to display their knowledge. Besides, someone else may be interested in the answers.

Except where otherwise stated, I'm talking about a body falling towards the Earth.

  1. Is terminal velocity a product of air resistance, or would it still exist in a vacuum?
  2. If it is a product of air resistance, is the actual value of the terminal velocity dependent upon the density and shape of the falling object? I guess this would be so ... thus an object shaped like a man attached to a parachute would have a relatively low terminal velocity.
  3. If the answer to (2) is yes, is it also a product of the density of the atmosphere? If so, does this mean that an object falling from very high above would reach its terminal velocity up in the rarefied upper atmosphere, then would actually slow down as it got into the denser lower atmosphere?
  4. Are there well defined equations for calculating the terminal velocity in a given set of circumstances? What are the variables?
  5. Does the falling body accelerate at a uniform rate until it reaches terminal velocity, or does the rate of acceleration gradually decrease, so that velocity asymptotically approaches the terminal?
Peter Macinnis replied:

>1. Is terminal velocity a product of air resistance, or would it still exist
>in a vacuum?

Air resistance.  Different shapes have different terminal velocities.

>2. If it is a product of air resistance, is the actual value of the terminal
>velocity dependent upon the density and shape of the falling object? I guess
>this would be so ... thus an object shaped like a man attached to a
>parachute would have a relatively low terminal velocity.

Yes -- see above.

>3. If the answer to (2) is yes, is it also a product of the density of the
>atmosphere? If so, does this mean that an object falling from very high
>above would reach its terminal velocity up in the rarefied upper atmosphere,
>then would actually slow down as it got into the denser lower atmosphere?

Yes

>4. Are there well defined equations for calculating the terminal velocity in
>a given set of circumstances? What are the variables?

Dunno -- doubt it -- watch sky divers and you will see that their velocity (they have generally attained terminal velocity) changes as they change their attitude.  You could probably do it for a spherical cow.

>5. Does the falling body accelerate at a uniform rate until it reaches
>terminal velocity, or does the rate of acceleration gradually decrease, so
>that velocity asymptotically approaches the terminal?

The latter.

Zero Sum replied:

> 1. Is terminal velocity a product of air resistance, or would it still
> exist in a vacuum?
>
Yes, and no it would not.

> 2. If it is a product of air resistance, is the actual value of the
> terminal velocity dependent upon the density and shape of the falling
> object? I guess this would be so ... thus an object shaped like a man
> attached to a parachute would have a relatively low terminal velocity.
>
That is precisely why a parachute works, it reduces the terminal velocity.

Termial velocity will vary slightly with air density, but it very different for somebody in 'diving' position' and 'frog position', the latter adding a forward component to the movement (fall).

> 3. If the answer to (2) is yes, is it also a product of the density of
> the atmosphere? If so, does this mean that an object falling from very
> high above would reach its terminal velocity up in the rarefied upper
> atmosphere, then would actually slow down as it got into the denser
> lower atmosphere?
>
Yes.

> 4. Are there well defined equations for calculating the terminal
> velocity in a given set of circumstances? What are the variables?
>
Yes.  Mas of body, viscosity of medium, irregularities in falling body....

> 5. Does the falling body accelerate at a uniform rate until it reaches
> terminal velocity, or does the rate of acceleration gradually decrease,
> so that velocity asymptotically approaches the terminal?

Yes and no.  The asymptotically is incorrect, I think.

Peter Macinnis replied:

>> 5. Does the falling body accelerate at a uniform rate until it reaches
>> terminal velocity, or does the rate of acceleration gradually decrease,
>> so that velocity asymptotically approaches the terminal?
>
>Yes and no.  The asymptotically is incorrect, I think.

A little analysis will reveal that you have (in effect) two forces:  acceleration due to gravity, which remains just about uniform within the range of the atmosphere, and retardation, which depends on drag, which is dependent on velocity.   My reasoning is that the "force" of air resistance is zero when the body is at rest and starts to fall, and steadily increases until the air resistance force cancels out the acceleration force due to gravity, so that the velocity becomes a constant.  On that basis, it has to be asymptotic -- as I understand Bruce to be using the term, where the effective acceleration falls away as the terminal velocity is approached.

Paul Williams answered:

> > 1. Is terminal velocity a product of air resistance, or would it still
> > exist in a vacuum?
> >
> Yes, and no it would not.
>
<snip>

I think that in Newtonian mechanics a body falling in a gravitational field in vacuum would have an infinite terminal velocity.

Zero Sum replied:

> A little analysis will reveal that you have (in effect) two forces:
> acceleration due to gravity, which remains just about uniform within the
> range of the atmosphere, and retardation, which depends on drag, which
> is dependent on velocity.   My reasoning is that the "force" of air
> resistance is zero when the body is at rest and starts to fall, and
> steadily increases until the air resistance force cancels out the
> acceleration force due to gravity, so that the velocity becomes a
> constant.  On that basis, it has to be asymptotic -- as I understand
> Bruce to be using the term, where the effective acceleration falls away
> as the terminal velocity is approached.

I cannot argue with your reasoning.  I can only offer the counter argument.

Terminal velocity is reached.  If the effect were truly asymptotic, then terminal valicity could only be approached, not reached.  If it were asymptotic there would always be some acceleration (until the ground was hit).  This does not appear to be so in practice.  Hence it cannot be asymptotic although it may resemble such a curve.

Anthony Morton wrote:

> Terminal velocity is reached.  If the effect were truly asymptotic, then
> terminal valicity could only be approached, not reached.  If it were
> asymptotic there would always be some acceleration (until the ground was
> hit).  This does not appear to be so in practice.  Hence it cannot be
> asymptotic although it may resemble such a curve.

There's a difference between attainment 'for all practical purposes' and attainment 'in theory'.  To a good approximation, the equation of free fall under gravity with air resistance has the same form as other familiar 'asymptotic decay' processes, such as radioactive decay or progress toward thermal equilibrium.  So terminal velocity is 'reached' in the same sense that short-lived isotopes 'vanish', or a body free of heat sources 'attains' ambient temperature.

A good first approximation to the physical situation is that the force of air resistance on a body is proportional to velocity: Fr = - K * v(t),   where K is a constant depending on the surface-area-to-volume ratio.  (A sheet of paper has large K; a scrunched-up sheet of paper has small K.)  In free fall, the only other force acting is that of gravity:  Fg = M * g where M is the mass and g is a constant acceleration (9.8 m/s per second at the Earth's surface).  So Newton's Second Law reads

        M * dv/dt = M * g - K * v(t)

or

        dv/dt + (K / M) * v(t) = g.

This equation for velocity as a function of time is typical of most equilibrium scenarios in physics.  On the assumption that velocity ultimately attains a constant value (say Vo), this can be found by setting dv/dt = 0.  We obtain Vo = M * g / K, which is the approximate formula for the terminal velocity of a falling body.  It is equal to
the weight-force divided by the coefficient of air resistance.

However, in practice this velocity Vo is attained only asymptotically; the rate of change dv/dt can be made as small as we please if we wait long enough, and eventually no measuring device will be capable of distinguishing the actual velocity from Vo.  dv/dt will eventually differ from zero only by a quantum fluctuation, but classically will
never be precisely zero.

A more precise analysis of free fall recognises that the force of air resistance is nonlinear, depending on higher powers of the velocity.
Thus, a better approximation is Fr = - K1 * v - K3 * v3
This makes the equation of motion more difficult to solve, but the essential feature is retained: the terminal velocity is obtained asymptotically, rather than precisely after a finite time.

Zero Sum wrote:

> > Terminal velocity is reached.  If the effect were truly asymptotic,
> > then terminal valicity could only be approached, not reached.  If it
> > were asymptotic there would always be some acceleration (until the
> > ground was hit).  This does not appear to be so in practice.  Hence it
> > cannot be asymptotic although it may resemble such a curve.
>
> There's a difference between attainment 'for all practical purposes'
> and attainment 'in theory'.  To a good approximation, the equation of
> free fall under gravity with air resistance has the same form as other
> familiar 'asymptotic decay' processes, such as radioactive decay or
> progress toward thermal equilibrium.  So terminal velocity is 'reached'
> in the same sense that short-lived isotopes 'vanish', or a body free of
> heat sources 'attains' ambient temperature.

You are correct and I understand this.  However, it seems to me that by changing the ground you can be on either side of the question.

In practice, terminal velocity *is* attained.  Theoretically, it can never be reached.  Approaching luminal velicity would be asymptotic, reaching teminal velocity is not.  That which can be reached is not and cannot be, the product of an asymptotic curve. Remember that maths *models* the real world and the equations you present mandate a very simple model which only roughly approximates reality.

Any further discussion would, I think, be mere debate.

Christopher Luke wrote:

It seems to me that you would be more likely to attain and remain at terminal velocity (or something close to it, either above or below) while descending through a thickening medium, as the decelerating force from the medium would always be increasing, so you would always have a significant mismatch between gravity and air resistance.

Bruce Harris responded:

Wow. Thank you, gentlemen, asking a question of this list is indeed a rewarding experience. Without wishing to sound like a crawler or a pisser-in-pockets, I get immense pleasure reading the words of people who know what they're talking about (and that's not everyone on the list, but a significant subset of them).

All this talk of air resistance has evoked a memory of another question. I swear this was not an ulterior motive in the original posting, it's just something I was reminded of while reading the responses about terminal velocity.

A year or so back I was showing my sister, her husband and three of their four kids, over from Perth, the delights of Springbrook National Park. Inspired by watching a waterfall from the top, and later walking under it, my nephew asked my opinion on something that had bugged him for a while. Suppose you are standing at a cliff edge, and you throw a rock horizontally. It's a mile to the valley floor, and the rock hits a certain horizontal distance from you. Now suppose that instead of one mile, it's two miles down to the valley floor. How much further, horizontally, would the rock have flown while descending the extra mile?

His dad reckoned the extra horizontal distance would be next to nothing, "no more than a metre or so" (these people from the west are very liberal in jumping between mensuration systems, I thought), because by the time it's travelled a mile downwards its trajectory is so close to vertical that any forward movement is negligible.

I told my nephew I didn't know the answer in the real world. All I could offer with any certainty was that this idea that the downward acceleration somehow "swallowed up" the horizontal motion was a misconception, that the two were independent of one another. If there were no air resistance, the horizontal velocity would be unchanged throughout the drop. Doing a "back of the envelope" calculation without the aid of the envelope, I reckoned it would take about 18 seconds to fall the first mile and another 7 seconds to fall the second mile. If the initial horizontal velocity was, say (wild guess) 40 metres per second, then that would still be the horizontal velocity during the second mile of freefall (in the no air resistance scenario) so the rock would move an extra 280 metres horizontally during that second mile of vertical drop. However, in the real world where air resistance is a factor, I simply had no idea.

I still reckon my answer was essentially correct for the "no air resistance" model. However I still have no idea what the answer would be in the real world. Is my brother-in-law right, that it would only advance an extra metre or so in the second mile of falling?

Zero Sum replied:

> I still reckon my answer was essentially correct for the "no air
> resistance" model. However I still have no idea what the answer would be
> in the real world. Is my brother-in-law right, that it would only
> advance an extra metre or so in the second mile of falling?

Reasonable.  The two dimensions can be considered independantly, but that model fails on one point.  The air resistance applies along the vector of movement (which is constantly changing from the horizantal towards the
vertical) so there would be a 'rate of change' in air resistance along each dimension that was not entirely dependent on the velicity in that dimension.

Anthony Morton responded:

> Reasonable.  The two dimensions can be considered independantly, but that
> model fails on one point.  The air resistance applies along the vector of
> movement (which is constantly changing from the horizantal towards the
> vertical) so there would be a 'rate of change' in air resistance olong
> exch dimension that was not entirely dpendeant on the velicity in that
> dimension.

This is the main complication.  Nonetheless it's not hard to see that the main conclusion is the same as for free fall: the terminal velocity is always directed vertically, and is independent of the initial conditions (in particular, it doesn't matter how hard you throw the stone, it'll always wind up falling vertically).

But if one is prepared to approximate the drag force as being proportional to speed (that is, Fr = K * v, directed opposite to the velocity vector), it is still possible to decouple the horizontal and vertical motion, just as when air resistance is not present.  In this case it is possible to define a 'half-life' for the horizontal component of velocity.  Say this is 10 seconds, and you threw the stone horizontally at 20 m/s: then after 10 seconds the horizontal speed is 10 m/s, after 20 seconds it's 5 m/s, after 30 seconds it's 2.5 m/s and so on.

The approximate half-life can be determined from the ratio of the terminal velocity to the gravitational acceleration, with a factor (ln 2) to convert from natural to base-2 exponents.  That is:

        Th = ln 2 * Vt / 9.8 = Vt / 14.14

where Vt is the observed terminal velocity.  So a rock with a terminal velocity of 10 m/s will have a half-life of about 0.7 seconds for decay of the horizontal motion.  If it takes 18 seconds to fall the first mile down the cliff and starts with a horizontal velocity of 40 m/s, its velocity after falling the first mile will be about one-thousandth
of a millimetre per second!  So your brother-in-law just might be right in thinking that the extra horizontal distance travelled after that is next to nothing.

But the decay is *very* sensitive to the terminal velocity of your rock.  A boulder with a terminal velocity of 100 m/s (or 360 kph) will have a half-life closer to 7 seconds, and if you shoot that out of a cannon with an initial horizontal velocity of 40 m/s, it'll still be travelling at nearly 7 m/s (or 25 kph) in the horizontal direction after falling for 18 seconds.  So it'll easily cover a few metres in the following 7 seconds.

In reality the magnitude of the drag force is a nonlinear function of the speed, so the horizontal and vertical motions don't nicely decouple like this.  But the half-life still gives a fairly good approximation to the exact behaviour.

Bruce Harris wrote:

Zero wrote:

> Reasonable.  The two dimensions can be considered independantly, but that
> model fails on one point.  The air resistance applies along the vector of
> movement (which is constantly changing from the horizantal towards the
> vertical) so there would be a 'rate of change' in air resistance along
> each dimension that was not entirely dpendeant on the velicity in that
> dimension.

Conceded, excellent point, and it does make a difference. However, alas, it gets me no closer, or rather not much closer, to an answer to the question.

Anthony Morton answered:

>  Although you may reach terminal velocity with or without the parachute
> opening, it seems to me that it is much more terminal in the latter
> case. :=)

According to my first year physics textbook, the terminal velocity of a skydiver is 200kph without a parachute, and 18kph with a parachute. The numbers tell the story :-)

Paul Williams posted:

Just playing around:
I realise that this is not predicted but could we postulate a super massive 'dark star' in Newtonian mechanics containing all the mass of the universe?
If we can do this, and if we further postulate infinite mass for our 'dark star', it seems that we end up with an infinite escape velocity and therefore an infinite terminal velocity...??

Playing around some more:

Superman comes from the planet Krypton (a noble gas of course - but he is a noble man :-)).
If we ignore the silliness of his 'Superstrength' and just look at the physics of the deep gravity well which was originally postulated to produce this superstrength:

  1. If Superman has the strength of, say, 1,000 men, would this not denote a mass for the planet Krypton 1,000 times that of the Earth?
  2. If this is so, would not the escape velocity of Krypton be about 11,000 km/s?
(Actually the simplistic 1,000 times the mass of Earth cannot work - ordinary matter cannot attain the density needed for a suitable surface gravity)

My understanding is that the escape velocity of the Sun is about 618 km/s.
A white dwarf of the Sun's mass has an escape velocity of about 3,380 km/s.
It seems that if we add enough mass to increase the (now white dwarf) Sun's mass to attain a Krypton-like gravity, we end up with a neutron star.
Unfortunately, the escape velocity of a neutron star of about 1.5 solar masses ends up being a lot more than we need - approaching 200,000 km/s.

It appears that the problem now is to create a Krypton with a neutron star centre but with a 'non-neutronian' surface surround.

Clutching desperately at straws to create this homeworld for Superman, we may perhaps posit a neutron star which is spinning  rapidly and has a halo of material suspended (rapidly orbiting) around at a distance which
gives us the requisite gravity/escape velocity.

We now appear to have a further problem in that gravitational heating of this material would produce temperatures of millions of degrees. That the whole lot would be bathed in x-rays we may assume would not be
health promoting for our Kryptonians in any way. (This material would also likely be spiralling into our Neuton star
core)

I think we must sadly discount a red giant sun for our Krypton, for if one had existed, it would have actually been orbiting our Krypton - but not for long - it seems that a black hole 'Sun' may be more likely.

This of course complicates the possibility of escaping this hellish 'solar system' somewhat (well actually, I believe it makes it *impossible*)

If we accept all this as being remotely possible, one may cease to wonder that Krypton was so unstable (not to say uncomfortable) that finding a safer abode for Kal-el (Superman) to live would have been an immediate
concern for his parents.
 
One may say that none of this matters as our Kryptonians can certainly not be made of ordinary matter - even extraordinary matter... but that will be another story...

David Martin responded:

Lots of questions here, and lots of good physics too. This will just be a
brief reply, I'm busy right now.

> Just playing around:
> I realise that this is not predicted but could we postulate a super
> massive 'dark star' in Newtonian mechanics containing all the mass of
> the universe?
> If we can do this, and if we further postulate infinite mass for our
> 'dark star', it seems that we end up with an infinite escape velocity
> and therefore an infinite terminal velocity...??

I'm not game to touch concepts like infinite mass :-)


> Playing around some more:
>
> Superman comes from the planet Krypton (a noble gas of course - but he
> is a noble man :-)).
> If we ignore the silliness of his 'Superstrength' and just look at the
> physics of the deep gravity well which was originally postulated to
> produce this superstrength:
>
> 1) If Superman has the strength of, say, 1,000 men, would this not
> denote a mass for the planet Krypton 1,000 times that of the Earth?

> 2) If this is so, would not the escape velocity of Krypton be about
> 11,000 km/s?
> (Actually the simplistic 1,000 times the mass of Earth cannot work -
> ordinary matter cannot attain the density needed for a suitable surface
> gravity)


Not necessarily. The surface gravity, g, of a (spherical) object of mass M and radius R is given by GM divided by R squared (G is the gravitational constant). If the mass of Krypton was 1000 times that of the Earth then the surface gravity would be as well, *provided* that it had the same radius as Earth.  As you say, however, that would mean that the density of Krypton was also a thousand times that of Earth.

Any satisfactory answer now requires a knowledge of the relationship between pressure, density and temperature for matter under these extreme conditions. Such a relationship is called the "equation of state (EOS)". I don't know much about this subject I'm afraid. There are a number of theoretically derived EOS's based on quantum effects, such as electron degeneracy, but, to my limited knowledge, these haven't been tested experimentally so I don't know how much faith can be put in them.

My feeling is that ordinary matter increases its density only slowly as the pressure is increased, and then undergoes catastrophic collapse; so densities of around 1000 times Earth's may not be possible at ordinary temperatures.

The (Newtonian) escape velocity for any (spherical) object, of mass M and radius R, is sqrt (2GM / R); escape velocity doesn't scale linearly with mass. Interestingly enough, putting this expression equal to c, the speed of light, gives the Schwartzchild radius for a simple black hole of mass M as well; i.e. it's the same expression in general relativity. If the hole is spinning and / or charged, Newtonian physics can't handle the problem.


Anyway, back to Krypton; a cold, rapidly spinning neutron star would seem to be the best bet. Krypton's inhabitants would have to live near the equator, however, and cope with some interesting electrical / magnetic effects. The magnetic fields of neutron stars are trillions of times stronger than Earth's and spinning magnetic fields of that magnitude would give enormous voltages all over the place.