General Class Question Pool

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* The questions contained within this pool must be used in all General 

class examinations beginning April 15, 2000, and is intended to be 

used up through June 30, 2004.

* The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis following 

each question number [eg, in G1A01 (C), position C contains the 

correct answer text].

                    Question Pool

                    ELEMENT 3 - GENERAL CLASS

                    as released by

                    Question Pool Committee

                    National Conference of 

                    Volunteer Examiner Coordinators

                    February 1, 2000

SUBELEMENT G1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups]

G1A  General control operator frequency privileges 

G1A01 @G1A01 (C) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 160-

meter band (ITU Region 2)?

A.  1800 - 1900-kHz

B.  1900 - 2000-kHz

C.  1800 - 2000-kHz

D.  1825 - 2000-kHz

G1A02 @G1A02 (A) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 75/80-

meter band (ITU Region 2)?

A.  3525 - 3750-kHz and 3850 - 4000-kHz

B.  3525 - 3775-kHz and 3875 - 4000-kHz

C.  3525 - 3750-kHz and 3875 - 4000-kHz

D.  3525 - 3775-kHz and 3850 - 4000-kHz

G1A03 @G1A03 (D) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 40-

meter band (ITU Region 2)?

A.  7025 - 7175-kHz and 7200 - 7300-kHz

B.  7025 - 7175-kHz and 7225 - 7300-kHz

C.  7025 - 7150-kHz and 7200 - 7300-kHz

D.  7025 - 7150-kHz and 7225 - 7300-kHz

G1A04 @G1A04 (A) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 30-

meter band?

A.  10100 - 10150-kHz

B.  10100 - 10175-kHz

C.  10125 - 10150-kHz

D.  10125 - 10175-kHz

G1A05 @G1A05 (B) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 20-

meter band?

A.  14025 - 14100-kHz and 14175 - 14350-kHz

B.  14025 - 14150-kHz and 14225 - 14350-kHz

C.  14025 - 14125-kHz and 14200 - 14350-kHz

D.  14025 - 14175-kHz and 14250 - 14350-kHz

G1A06 @G1A06 (D) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 15-

meter band?

A.  21025 - 21200-kHz and 21275 - 21450-kHz

B.  21025 - 21150-kHz and 21300 - 21450-kHz

C.  21025 - 21150-kHz and 21275 - 21450-kHz

D.  21025 - 21200-kHz and 21300 - 21450-kHz

G1A07 @G1A07 (A) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 12-

meter band?

A.  24890 - 24990-kHz

B.  24890 - 24975-kHz

C.  24900 - 24990-kHz

D.  24900 - 24975-kHz

G1A08 @G1A08 (A) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 10-

meter band?

A.  28000 - 29700-kHz

B.  28025 - 29700-kHz

C.  28100 - 29600-kHz

D.  28125 - 29600-kHz

G1A09 @New (D) [97.301d]

What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 17-

meter band?

A.  18068 - 18300-kHz

B.  18025 - 18200-kHz

C.  18100 - 18200-kHz

D.  18068 - 18168-kHz

G1A10 @New (B) [97.301d]

What class of amateur license authorizes you to operate on the 

frequencies 14025 - 14150-kHz and 14225 - 14350-kHz?

A.  Amateur Extra class only

B.  Amateur Extra, Advanced or General class

C.  Amateur Extra, Advanced, General or Technician class

D.  Amateur Extra and Advanced class only

G1A11 @New (C) [97.301d]

What class of amateur license authorizes you to operate on the 

frequencies 21025 - 21200-kHz and 21300 - 21450-kHz?

A.  Amateur Extra class only

B.  Amateur Extra and Advanced class only

C.  Amateur Extra, Advanced or General class

D.  Amateur Extra, Advanced, General or Technician class

G1B  Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur 

practice; beacon operation; restricted operation; retransmitting radio 

signals

G1B01 @G1B01 (C) [97.15a]

Up to what height above the ground may you install an antenna structure 

without needing FCC approval unless your station is in close proximity 

to an airport as defined in the FCC Rules?

A.  50 feet

B.  100 feet

C.  200 feet

D.  300 feet

G1B02 @G1B02 (B) [97.101a]

If the FCC Rules DO NOT specifically cover a situation, how must you 

operate your amateur station?

A.  In accordance with general licensee operator principles

B.  In accordance with good engineering and good amateur practice

C.  In accordance with practices adopted by the Institute of Electrical 

and Electronics Engineers

D.  In accordance with procedures set forth by the International 

Amateur Radio Union

G1B03 @G1B03 (B) [97.203g]

Which of the following types of stations may normally transmit only 

one-way communications?

A.  Repeater station

B.  Beacon station

C.  HF station

D.  VHF station

G1B04 @G1B04 (A) [97.113b]

Which of the following does NOT need to be true if an amateur station 

gathers news information for broadcast purposes?

A.  The information is more quickly transmitted by Amateur Radio

B.  The information must involve the immediate safety of life of 

individuals or the immediate protection of property

C.  The information must be directly related to the event

D.  The information cannot be transmitted by other means

G1B05 @G1B05 (D) [97.113e]

Under what limited circumstances may music be transmitted by an amateur 

station?

A.  When it produces no dissonances or spurious emissions

B.  When it is used to jam an illegal transmission

C.  When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

D.  When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle retransmission

G1B06 @G1B06 (C) [97.113a4]

When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a message 

in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the communication?

A.  When transmitting above 450 MHz

B.  During contests

C.  Never

D.  During a declared communications emergency

G1B07 @G1B07 (B) [97.113a4]

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural 

signals in the amateur service?

A.  There are no restrictions

B.  They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

C.  They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a 

message to FCC monitoring stations

D.  Only "10-codes" are permitted

G1B08 @G1B08 (A) [97.113a4]

When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way domestic amateur 

communications?

A.  Never, if intended to obscure meaning

B.  During contests

C.  During nationally declared emergencies

D.  On frequencies above 2.3-GHz

G1B09 @G1B09 (A) [97.113a4]

When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way international amateur 

communications?

A.  Never, if intended to obscure meaning

B.  During contests

C.  During internationally declared emergencies

D.  On frequencies above 2.3-GHz

G1B10 @G1B10 (D) [97.113a4, 97.113e]

Which of the following amateur transmissions is NOT prohibited by the 

FCC Rules?

A.  The playing of music

B.  The use of obscene or indecent words

C.  False or deceptive messages or signals

D.  Retransmission of space shuttle communications

G1B11 @G1B11 (C) [97.113a4, 97.113e]

What should you do to keep your station from retransmitting music or 

signals from a non-amateur station?

A.  Turn up the volume of your transceiver

B.  Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength

C.  Turn down the volume of background audio

D.  Adjust your transceiver noise blanker

G1C  Transmitter power standards; certification of external RF-

power-amplifiers; standards for certification of external RF-power 

amplifiers; HF data emission standards

G1C01 @G1C01 (A) [97.313c1]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

3690 kHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications 

with a maximum of 2000 watts PEP output

G1C02 @G1C02 (C) [97.313a,b]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

7080 kHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C03 @G1C03 (A) [97.313c1]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

10.140 MHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C04 @G1C04 (A) [97.313c1]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

21.150 MHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C05 @G1C05 (C) [97.313a,b]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

24.950 MHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C06 @New (C) [97.313]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

3818 kHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications 

with a maximum of 2000 watts PEP output

G1C07 @New (A) [97.313]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

7105 kHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C08 @New (A) [97.313]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

14.300 MHz?

A.  The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications 

with a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output

B.  200 watts PEP output

C.  1000 watts PEP output

D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C09 @New (C) [97.313]

What is the absolute maximum transmitting power a General class amateur 

may use on 28.400 MHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C10 @New (C) [97.313]

What is the absolute maximum transmitting power a General class amateur 

may use on 28.150 MHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  1500 watts PEP output

D.  2000 watts PEP output

G1C11 @New (D) [97.313]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 

1825 kHz?

A.  200 watts PEP output

B.  1000 watts PEP output

C.  2000 watts PEP output

D.  The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications 

with a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output

G1D  Examination element preparation; examination administration; 

temporary station identification

G1D01 @G1D01 (B) [97.507a2]

*Modified Q, A, B, C, D for Rules changes

What examination elements may you prepare if you hold a General class 

license?

A.  None

B.  Elements 1 and 2 only

C.  Element 1 only

D.  Elements 1, 2 and 3

G1D02 @G1D03 (C) [97.509b3i]

*Modified Q, B, C, D for Rules changes

What license examinations may you administer if you hold a General 

class license?

A.  None

B.  General only

C.  Technician and Morse code

D.  Technician, General and Amateur Extra

G1D03 @G1D05 (A) [97.501e]

*Modified Answer key, B, C, D for Rules changes

What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a 

Technician license?

A.  Element 2 only

B.  Elements 1 and 2

C.  Elements 2 and 3

D.  Elements 1, 2 and 3

G1D04 @G1D06 (B) [97.501d]

*Modified answer key, Q, B, C, D for Rules changes

What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a 

Technician license with Morse code credit to operate on the HF bands?

A.  Element 2 only

B.  Elements 1 and 2

C.  Elements 2 and 3

D.  Elements 1, 2 and 3

G1D05 @G1D07 (A) [97.509a,b]

*Modified Q for Rules changes

What are the requirements for administering Technician examinations?

A.  Three VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be present

B.  Two VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be present

C.  Two General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need 

be VEC accredited

D.  Any two General class or higher VEs must be present

G1D06 @G1D08 (D) [97.509b3i]

*Modified Q, C for Rules changes

When may you participate as an administering Volunteer Examiner (VE) 

for a Technician license examination?

A.  Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an examination

B.  Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination 

(CSCE) for General class

C.  Once you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations for the 

Technician license, or obtained them from a qualified supplier

D.  Once you have been granted your FCC General class or higher license 

and received your VEC accreditation

G1D07 @G1D09 (B) [97.119f2]

If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful 

Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do you 

identify your station when transmitting on 14.035 MHz?

A.  You must give your call sign and the location of the VE examination 

where you obtained the CSCE

B.  You must give your call sign, followed by the slant mark "/", 

followed by the identifier "AG"

C.  You may not operate on 14.035 MHz until your new license arrives

D.  No special form of identification is needed

G1D08 @G1D10 (C) [97.119f2]

If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful 

Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do you 

identify your station when transmitting phone emissions on 14.325 MHz?

A.  No special form of identification is needed

B.  You may not operate on 14.325 MHz until your new license arrives

C.  You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word that 

denotes the slant mark and the identifier "AG"

D.  You must give your call sign and the location of the VE examination 

where you obtained the CSCE

G1D09 @G1D11 (A) [97.119f2]

If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful 

Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, when must you 

add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign?

A.  Whenever you operate using your new frequency privileges

B.  Whenever you operate

C.  Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

D.  A special identifier is not required as long as your General class 

license application has been filed with the FCC

G1D10 @New (D) [97.119f2]

If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful 

Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, on which of 

the following band segments must you add the special identifier "AG" 

after your call sign?

A.  Whenever you operate from 18068 - 18168-kHz

B.  Whenever you operate from 14025 - 14150-kHz and 14225 - 14350-kHz

C.  Whenever you operate from 10100 - 10150-kHz

D.  All of these choices are correct

G1D11 @New (D) [97.509b3i]

When may you participate as an administering Volunteer Examiner (VE) to 

administer the Element 1 5-WPM Morse code examination?

A.  Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an examination

B.  Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination 

(CSCE) for General class

C.  Once you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations for the 

Technician license, or obtained them from a qualified supplier

D.  Once you have been granted your FCC General class or higher license 

and received your VEC accreditation

G1E  Local control; repeater and harmful interference definitions; 

third party communications

G1E01 @G1A09 (B) [97.119e]

*Modified Q, A, B, C, D for Rules changes -- (Replaced Novice with 

Technician)

As a General class control operator at a Technician station, how must 

you identify the Technician station when transmitting on 7250 kHz?

A.  With your call sign, followed by the word "controlling" and the 

Technician call sign

B.  With the Technician call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or 

any suitable word) and your own call sign

C.  With your call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable 

word) and the Technician call sign

D.  A Technician station should not be operated on 7250-kHz, even with 

a General control operator

G1E02 @G1A10 (D) [97.205a]

Under what circumstances may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter 

signal from a Technician class operator?

A.  Under no circumstances

B.  Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special 

Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

C.  Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications 

emergency

D.  Only if the 10-meter control operator holds at least a General 

class license

G1E03 @G1A11 (A) [97.3a37]

What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of 

other stations on a different channel?

A.  Repeater station

B.  Space station

C.  Telecommand station

D.  Relay station

G1E04 @G1A12 (B) [97.3a22]

What name is given to a form of interference that seriously degrades, 

obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication service?

A.  Intentional interference

B.  Harmful interference

C.  Adjacent interference

D.  Disruptive interference

G1E05 @G1A13 (C) [97.115, 97.117]

What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station to a 

foreign country for a third party?

A.  Messages for which the amateur operator is paid

B.  Messages facilitating the business affairs of any party

C.  Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character

D.  No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third 

parties

G1E06 @T1B09 (A) [97.205c] 

If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater and a 

frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of one station 

only, who is responsible for resolving the interference?

A.  The licensee of the unrecommended repeater

B.  Both repeater licensees

C.  The licensee of the recommended repeater

D.  The frequency coordinator

G1E07 @T1B10 (D) [97.205c] 

If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur 

repeater and a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of 

both stations, who is responsible for resolving the interference? 

A.  The licensee of the repeater that has been recommended for the 

longest period of time

B.  The licensee of the repeater that has been recommended the most 

recently

C.  The frequency coordinator

D.  Both repeater licensees

G1E08 @T1B11 (A) [97.205c] 

If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater and a 

frequency coordinator has NOT recommended either station, who is 

primarily responsible for resolving the interference?

A.  Both repeater licensees

B.  The licensee of the repeater that has been in operation for the 

longest period of time

C.  The licensee of the repeater that has been in operation for the 

shortest period of time

D.  The frequency coordinator

G1E09 @T1B06 (C) [97.303]

If the FCC rules say that the amateur service is a secondary user of a 

frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this 

mean?

A.  Nothing special; all users of a frequency band have equal rights to 

operate

B.  Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during 

emergencies

C.  Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not 

cause harmful interference to primary users

D.  Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any 

interference caused by primary users

G1E10 @T1B07 (D) [97.303]

If you are using a frequency within a band assigned to the amateur 

service on a secondary basis, and a station assigned to the primary 

service on that band causes interference, what action should you take?

A.  Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

B.  Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference

C.  Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the 

interference

D.  Change frequencies; you may be causing harmful interference to the 

other station, in violation of FCC rules

G1E11 @T1D01 (C) [97.119b2]  

If you are using a language besides English to make a contact, what 

language must you use when identifying your station?

A.  The language being used for the contact

B.  The language being used for the contact, provided the US has a 

third-party communications agreement with that country

C.  English

D.  Any language of a country that is a member of the International 

Telecommunication Union

G1F  Certification of external RF-power-amplifiers; standards for 

certification of external RF-power amplifiers; HF data emission 

standards

G1F01 @G1C06 (D) [97.315a]

External RF power amplifiers designed to operate below what frequency 

may require FCC certification?

A.  28 MHz

B.  35 MHz

C.  50 MHz

D.  144 MHz

G1F02 @G1C07 (B) [97.315a]

Without a grant of FCC certification, how many external RF amplifiers 

of a given design capable of operation below 144 MHz may you build or 

modify in one calendar year?

A.  None

B.  1

C.  5

D.  10

G1F03 @G1C08 (B) [97.317a3]

Which of the following standards must be met if FCC certification of an 

external RF amplifier is required?

A.  The amplifier must not be able to amplify a 28-MHz signal to more 

than ten times the input power

B.  The amplifier must not be capable of reaching its designed output 

power when driven with less than 50 watts

C.  The amplifier must not be able to be operated for more than ten 

minutes without a time delay circuit

D.  The amplifier must not be able to be modified by an amateur 

operator

G1F04 @G1C09 (D) [97.317b,c]

Which of the following would NOT disqualify an external RF power 

amplifier from being granted FCC certification?

A.  The capability of being modified by the operator for use outside 

the amateur bands

B.  The capability of achieving full output power when driven with less 

than 50 watts

C.  The capability of achieving full output power on amateur  

frequencies between 24 and 35 MHz

D.  The capability of being switched by the operator to all amateur 

frequencies below 24 MHz

G1F05 @G1C10 (A) [97.305c, 97.307f3]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emissions below 28 

MHz?

A.  300 bauds

B.  1200 bauds

C.  19.6 kilobauds

D.  56 kilobauds

G1F06 @G1C11 (D) [97.305c, 97.307f3]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions below 28 

MHz?

A.  56 kilobauds

B.  19.6 kilobauds

C.  1200 bauds

D.  300 bauds

G1F07 @T1C03 (B) [97.307f4]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emissions on the 

10-meter band?

A.  300 bauds

B.  1200 bauds

C.  19.6 kilobauds

D.  56 kilobauds

G1F08 @T1C04 (C) [97.307f5]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emissions on the 

2-meter band?

A.  300 bauds

B.  1200 bauds

C.  19.6 kilobauds

D.  56 kilobauds

G1F09 @T1C05 (C) [97.307f4]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emissions on 

the 10-meter band?

A.  56 kilobauds

B.  19.6 kilobauds

C.  1200 bauds

D.  300 bauds

G1F10 @T1C06 (B) [97.307f5]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emissions on 

the 6- and 2-meter bands?

A.  56 kilobauds

B.  19.6 kilobauds

C.  1200 bauds

D.  300 bauds

G1F11 @T1C07 (A) [97.307f5]

What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of RTTY, data or multiplexed 

emissions using an unspecified digital code on the 6- and 2-meter 

bands?

A.  20 kHz

B.  50 kHz

C.  The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband 

phone emission

D.  The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission

SUBELEMENT G2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups]

G2A  Phone operating procedures

G2A01 @G2A01 (A)

Which sideband is commonly used for 20-meter phone operation?

A.  Upper

B.  Lower

C.  Amplitude compandored

D.  Double

G2A02 @G2A02 (B)

Which sideband is commonly used on 3925-kHz for phone operation?

A.  Upper

B.  Lower

C.  Amplitude compandored

D.  Double

G2A03 @New (B)

Which sideband is commonly used for 40-meter phone operation?

A.  Upper

B.  Lower

C.  Amplitude compandored

D.  Double

G2A04 @New (D)

Which sideband is commonly used for 10-meter phone operation?

A.  Double

B.  Lower

C.  Amplitude compandored

D.  Upper

G2A05 @New (A)

Which sideband is commonly used for 15-Meter phone operation?

A.  Upper

B.  Lower

C.  Amplitude compandored

D.  Double

G2A06 @New (B)

Which sideband is commonly used for 17-Meter phone operation?

A.  Lower

B.  Upper

C.  Amplitude compandored

D.  Double

G2A07 @New (C)

Which of the following modes of voice communication is most commonly 

used on the High Frequency Amateur bands?

A.  Frequency modulation (FM)

B.  Amplitude modulation (AM)

C.  Single sideband (SSB)

D   Phase modulation (PM)

G2A08 @New (D)

Why is the single sideband mode of voice transmission used more 

frequently than Amplitude Modulation (AM) on the HF amateur bands?

A.  Single sideband transmissions use less spectrum space

B.  Single sideband transmissions are more power efficient

C.  No carrier is transmitted with a single sideband transmission

D.  All of the above responses are correct

G2A09 @New (B)

Which of the following statements is true of a lower sideband 

transmission?

A.  It is called lower sideband because the lower sideband is greatly 

attenuated

B.  It is called lower sideband because the lower sideband is the only 

sideband transmitted, since the upper sideband is suppressed

C.  The lower sideband is wider than the upper sideband

D.  The lower sideband is the only sideband that is authorized on the 

160-, 75- and 40-meter amateur bands

G2A10 @New (A) 

Which of the following statements is true of an upper sideband 

transmission?

A. Only the upper sideband is transmitted, since the opposite sideband 

is suppressed 

B. The upper sideband is greatly attenuated as compared with the 

carrier 

C. The upper sideband is greatly attenuated as compared with the lower 

sideband 

D. Only the upper sideband may be used for phone transmissions on the 

amateur bands with frequencies above 14 MHz 

G2A11 @New (D)

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75- and 

40-meter bands?

A.  The lower sideband is more efficient at these frequency bands

B.  The lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency 

bands

C.  Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

D.  Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these 

frequency bands

G2B  Operating courtesy

G2B01 @G2B01 (D)

If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you 

do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just before 

the net begins?

A.  Reduce your output power and start the net as usual

B.  Increase your power output so that net participants will be able 

to hear you over the existing activity

C.  Cancel the net for that day

D.  Conduct the net on a clear frequency 3 to 5-kHz away from the 

regular net frequency

G2B02 @G2B02 (A)

If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another 

station are using, what should you do?

A.  As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency

B.  Increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can 

hear you

C.  Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other 

stations may use it

D.  Turn off your radio

G2B03 @G2B03 (D)

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing 

interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should 

you do?

A.  Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you were 

there first

B.  Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary 

Coordinator

C.  Turn on your amplifier to overcome the interference

D.  Move your contact to another frequency

G2B04 @G2B04 (B)

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency 

separation from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize 

interference?

A.  5 to 50 Hz

B.  150 to 500 Hz

C.  1 to 3-kHz

D.  3 to 6-kHz

G2B05 @G2B05 (B)

When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency, what 

minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you 

allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize interference?

A.  150 to 500 Hz

B.  Approximately 3-kHz

C.  Approximately 6-kHz

D.  Approximately 10-kHz

G2B06 @G2B06 (B)

When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency 

separation from a contact in progress should you allow (center to 

center) to minimize interference?

A.  60 Hz

B.  250 to 500 Hz

C.  Approximately 3-kHz

D.  Approximately 6-kHz

G2B07 @G2B10 (A)

What is a band plan?

A.  A voluntary guideline beyond the divisions established by the FCC 

for using different operating modes within an amateur band

B.  A guideline from the FCC for making amateur frequency band 

allocations

C.  A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band published by 

the FCC

D.  A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a 

contest

G2B08 @New (A)

What is another name for a voluntary guideline that guides amateur 

activities and extends beyond the divisions established by the FCC for 

using different operating modes within an amateur band

A.  A "Band Plan"

B.  A "Frequency and Solar Cycle Guide"

C.  The "Knowledgeable Operator's Guide"

D.  The "Frequency Use Guidebook"

G2B09 @New (D)

When choosing a frequency for Slow-Scan TV (SSTV) operation, what 

should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

A.  Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and 

emissions

B.  Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band plans

C.  Before transmitting, listen to the frequency to be used to avoid 

interfering with an ongoing communication

D.  All of these choices

G2B10 @New (D)

When choosing a frequency for radioteletype (RTTY) operation, what 

should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

A.  Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and 

emissions

B.  Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band plans

C.  Before transmitting, listen to the frequency to be used to avoid 

interfering with an ongoing communication

D.  All of these choices are correct

G2B11 @New (D)

When choosing a frequency for HF Packet operation, what should you do 

to comply with good amateur practice?

A.  Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and 

emissions

B.  Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band plans

C.  Before transmitting, first listen on the frequency to be used to 

avoid interfering with an ongoing communication

D.  All of these choices

G2C  Emergencies, including drills and emergency communications 

G2C01 @G2C01 (C)

What means may an amateur station in distress use to attract 

attention, make known its condition and location, and obtain 

assistance?

A.  Only Morse code signals sent on internationally recognized 

emergency channels

B.  Any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally 

recognized emergency channels

C.  Any means of radiocommunication

D.  Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station is 

licensed

G2C02 @G2C02 (A)

During a disaster in the US, when may an amateur station make 

transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and 

assist relief operations?

A.  When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or 

disrupted

B.  Only when the local RACES net is activated

C.  Never; only official emergency stations may transmit in a disaster

D.  When normal communication systems are working but are not 

convenient

G2C03 @G2C03 (A)

If a disaster disrupts normal communications in your area, what may 

the FCC do?

A.  Declare a temporary state of communication emergency

B.  Temporarily seize your equipment for use in disaster 

communications

C.  Order all stations across the country to stop transmitting at once

D.  Nothing until the President declares the area a disaster area

G2C04 @G2C04 (D)

If a disaster disrupts normal communications in an area what would the 

FCC include in any notice of a temporary state of communication 

emergency?

A.  Any additional test questions needed for the licensing of amateur 

emergency communications workers

B.  A list of organizations authorized to temporarily seize your 

equipment for disaster communications

C.  Any special conditions requiring the use of non-commercial power 

systems

D.  Any special conditions and special rules to be observed by 

stations during the emergency

G2C05 @G2C05 (D)

During an emergency, what power output limitations must be observed by 

a station in distress?

A.  200 watts PEP

B.  1500 watts PEP

C.  1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts PEP 

during the night

D.  There are no limitations during an emergency

G2C06 @G2C06 (C)

During a disaster in the US, what frequencies may be used to obtain 

assistance?

A.  Only frequencies in the 80-meter band

B.  Only frequencies in the 40-meter band

C.  Any frequency

D.  Any United Nations approved frequency

G2C07 @G2C07 (B)

If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a 

station in distress break in, what should you do?

A.  Continue your communication because you were on frequency first

B.  Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and 

what assistance may be needed

C.  Change to a different frequency so the station in distress may 

have a clear channel to call for assistance

D.  Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress 

have emergency rights to the frequency

G2C08 @G2C08 (A)

Why do stations in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES) 

participate in training tests and drills?

A.  To practice orderly and efficient operations for the civil defense 

organization they serve

B.  To ensure that members attend monthly on-the-air meetings

C.  To ensure that RACES members are able to conduct tests and drills

D.  To acquaint members of RACES with other members they may meet in 

an emergency

G2C09 @New (C)

When are you prohibited from helping a station in distress?

A.  When that station is not transmitting on amateur frequencies

B.  When the station in distress offers no call sign

C.  You are not ever prohibited from helping any station in distress

D.  When the station is not another amateur station

G2C10 @New (A)

When FCC declares a temporary state of communication emergency, what 

must you do?

A.  Abide by the limitations or conditions set forth in the FCC notice

B.  Stay off the air until 30 days after FCC lifts the emergency 

notice

C.  Only communicate with stations within 2 miles of your location

D.  Nothing; wait until the President declares a formal emergency 

before taking further action

G2C11 @New (C)

During a disaster in the US, which of the following emission modes 

must be used to obtain assistance?

A.  Only SSB

B.  Only SSB and CW

C.  Any mode

D.  Only CW

G2D  Amateur auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and Information Bureau; 

antenna orientation to minimize interference; HF operations, including 

logging practices

G2D01 @G2C10 (A)

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and Information 

Bureau?

A.  Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the 

airwaves for rules violations

B.  Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

C.  Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur 

VHF repeaters

D.  Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil 

defense organizations in times of emergency

G2D02 @G2C11 (B)

What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's 

Compliance and Information Bureau?

A.  To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

B.  To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules

C.  To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

D.  To provide emergency and public safety communications

G2D03 @New (B) 

Why are direction-finding "Fox Hunts" important to the Amateur 

Auxiliary?

A.  Fox Hunts compell amateurs to upgrade their licenses

B.  Fox Hunts provide an opportunity to practice direction-finding 

skills

C.  Someone always receives an FCC Notice of Apparent Liability (NAL) 

when a Fox Hunt is concluded

D.  Fox Hunts allow amateurs to work together with Environmental 

Protection Agencies

G2D04 @New (C)

Which of the following is NOT an example of how "Direction Finding" 

skills help the Amateur Auxiliary?

A.  good direction-finding team can pinpoint where any interference is 

originating from

B.  Good direction-finding skills lead to thorough records being 

created and forwarded to the proper enforcement bureau.

C.  Direction finding allows amateurs to operate outside our band 

limits

D.  Direction-finding drills make everyone aware that a plan is in 

place to eliminate interference. 

G2D05 @G2B07 (B)

What is an azimuthal map?

A.  A map projection centered on the North Pole

B.  A map projection centered on a particular location, used to 

determine the shortest path between points on the surface of the earth

C.  A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses 

the equator

D.  A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur 

satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

G2D06 @G2B08 (A)

What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a 

directional HF antenna toward a distant station?

A.  Azimuthal

B.  Mercator

C.  Polar projection

D.  Topographical

G2D07 @G2B09 (C)

A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another 

station is generally oriented how many degrees from its short-path 

heading?

A.  45 degrees

B.  90 degrees

C.  180 degrees

D.  270 degrees

G2D08 @N1G06 (B) [97.103b]

If a visiting amateur transmits from your station, which of these is 

NOT true?

A.  You must first give permission for the visiting amateur to use 

your station

B.  You must keep in your station log the call sign of the visiting 

amateur together with the time and date of transmissions

C.  The FCC may think that you were the station's control operator, 

unless your station records show otherwise

D.  You both are equally responsible for the proper operation of the 

station

G2D09 @New (D)

Why should I keep a log if the FCC doesn't require it?

A.  To help with your reply, if FCC requests information on who was 

control operator of your station for a given date and time

B.  Logs provide information (callsigns, dates & times of contacts) 

used for many operating contests and awards

C.  Logs are necessary to accurately verify contacts made weeks, 

months or years earlier, especially when completing QSL cards

D.  All of these choices

G2D10 @New (C)

What is an advantage of keeping a paper log as well as a computer log?

A.  Paper logs will not accidentally erase like computer logs may

B.  There is no (computer start up) waiting time required to write 

information on paper

C.  All of these choices

D.  Paper logs can provide a back up for computer logs

G2D11 @New (D)

What information is normally contained in a station log?

A.  Date and time of contact

B.  Band and/or frequency of the contact

C.  Call sign of station contacted and the RST signal report given

D.  All of these choices

G2E Third-party communications; ITU Regions; VOX operation

G2E01 @G2C09 (C)

What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in a 

foreign country?

A.  Messages of any type

B.  Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in nature

C.  Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of relative 

unimportance

D.  Messages of any type, but only if the foreign country has a third-

party communications agreement with the US

G2E02 @New (C)

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation?

A.  The received signal is more natural sounding

B.  Frequency spectrum is conserved

C.  This mode allows "Hands Free' operation

D.  The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced

G2E03 @New (D)

Which of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated 

with VOX circuitry?

A.  Anti-VOX

B.  VOX Delay

C.  VOX Sensitivity

D.  All of these choices are correct

G2E04 @New (C)

What is the purpose of the VOX sensitivity control?

A.  To set the timing of transmitter activation

B.  To set the audio frequency range at which the transmitter 

activates

C.  To set the audio level at which the transmitter activates

D.  None of these choices is correct

G2E05 @New (A)

What is the purpose of the Anti-VOX control?

A.  To prevent the received audio from activating the transmitter

B.  To prevent the transmitter from being activated by ambient or 

background noise

C.  To prevent activation of the transmitter during CW operation

D.  To override the function of other controls when the transmitter is 

used for frequency shift keying

G2E06 @G2B11 (B)

In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the 

continental United States?

A.  Region 1

B.  Region 2

C.  Region 3

D.  Region 4

G2E07 @New (A)

In which International Telecommunication Union Region are Europe and 

Africa?

A.  Region 1

B.  Region 2

C.  Region 3

D.  Region 4

G2E08 @New (C)

In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Australia?

A.  Region 1

B.  Region 2

C.  Region 3

D.  Region 4

G2E09 @New (C)

Which of the following organizations are responsible for international 

regulation of the radio spectrum?

A.  The International Regulatory Commission

B.  The International Radio Union

C.  The International Telecommunications Union

D.  The International Frequency-Spectrum Commission

G2E10 @New (D)

What do the initials "ITU" stand for?

A.  Interstate Telecommunications Union

B.  International Telephony Union

C.  International Transmission Union

D.  International Telecommunications Union

G2E11 @G2A10 (B)

What is the circuit called that causes a transmitter to automatically 

transmit when an operator speaks into its microphone?

A.  VXO

B.  VOX

C.  VCO

D.  VFO

G2F  CW operating procedures, including procedural signals, Q signals 

and common abbreviations; full break-in; G2H  RTTY operating 

procedures, including procedural signals and common abbreviations and 

operating procedures for other digital modes, such as HF packet, 

AMTOR, PacTOR, G-TOR, Clover and PSK31

G2F01 @G2A11 (D)

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy?

A.  Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

B.  Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

C.  An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and 

after every transmission

D.  Incoming signals are received between transmitted key pulses

G2F02 @G2A03 (A)

In what segment of the 80-meter band do most RTTY transmissions take 

place?

A.  3580 - 3620-kHz

B.  3500 - 3525-kHz

C.  3700 - 3750-kHz

D.  3775 - 3825-kHz

G2F03 @G2A04 (B)

In what segment of the 20-meter band do most RTTY transmissions take 

place?

A.  14.000 - 14.050 MHz

B.  14.070 - 14.095 MHz

C.  14.150 - 14.225 MHz

D.  14.275 - 14.350 MHz

G2F04 @G2A05 (C)

What is the Baudot code?

A.  A 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits

B.  A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three space 

bits

C.  A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits

D.  A 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits

G2F05 @G2A07 (B)

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the 

amateur HF bands?

A.  85 Hz

B.  170 Hz

C.  425 Hz

D.  850 Hz

G2F06 @G2A06 (A)

What is ASCII?

A.  A 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits

B.  A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three space 

bits

C.  A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits

D.  A 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and two space 

bits

G2F07 @G2A08 (B)

What are the two major AMTOR operating modes?

A.  Mode AM and Mode TR

B.  Mode A (ARQ) and Mode B (FEC)

C.  Mode C (CRQ) and Mode D (DEC)

D.  Mode SELCAL and Mode LISTEN

G2F08 @New (A)

Why are the string of letters R and Y (sent as "RYRYRYRY...") 

occasionally used at the beginning of RTTY transmissions?

A.  This allows time to 'tune in' a station prior to the actual 

message being sent

B.  To keep these commonly-used keys funtional

C.  These are the important mark and space keys

D.  To make sure the transmitter is functional before sending a 

message

G2F09 @New (A)

As one of several digital codes, what is the benefit of using AMTOR?

A.  Its error detection and correction properties

B.  Its data compression properties

C.  Its store and save properties

D.  It is a very narrow-bandwidth frequency efficient system

G2F10 @N2B02 (B)

What speed should you use when answering a CQ call using RTTY?

A.  Half the speed of the received signal

B.  The same speed as the received signal

C.  Twice the speed of the received signal

D.  Any speed, since RTTY systems adjust to any signal speed

G2F11 @N2B03 (B)

What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?

A.  "Returning to you", meaning "your turn to transmit"

B.  Radioteletype

C.  A general call to all digital stations

D.  Morse code practice over the air

SUBELEMENT G3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]

G3A  Ionospheric disturbances; sunspots and solar radiation

G3A01 @G3A01 (A)

What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications 

during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?

A.  Try a higher frequency

B.  Try the other sideband

C.  Try a different antenna polarization

D.  Try a different frequency shift

G3A02 @G3A02 (B)

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the day-time 

ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

A.  It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths

B.  It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher 

frequencies

C.  It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct 

communications

D.  None, only areas on the night side of the earth are affected

G3A03 @G3A03 (C)

How long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation 

from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the earth?

A.  The effect is almost instantaneous

B.  1.5 minutes

C.  8 minutes

D.  20 to 40 hours

G3A04 @G3A04 (B)

What is solar flux?

A.  The density of the sun's magnetic field

B.  The radio energy emitted by the sun

C.  The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the earth

D.  A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side toward 

the sun

G3A05 @G3A05 (D)

What is the solar-flux index?

A.  A measure of solar activity that is taken annually

B.  A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with 

results from the last six months

C.  Another name for the American sunspot number

D.  A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency

G3A06 @G3A06 (D)

What is a geomagnetic disturbance?

A.  A sudden drop in the solar-flux index

B.  A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole

C.  Ripples in the ionosphere

D.  A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short 

period of time

G3A07 @G3A07 (A)

At which latitudes are propagation paths more sensitive to geomagnetic 

disturbances?

A.  Those greater than 45 degrees latitude

B.  Those between 5 and 45 degrees latitude

C.  Those near the equator

D.  All paths are affected equally

G3A08 @G3A08 (B)

What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radio-wave 

propagation?

A.  Improved high-latitude HF propagation

B.  Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

C.  Improved ground-wave propagation

D.  Improved chances of UHF ducting

G3A09 @G3A09 (A)

What phenomenon has the most effect on radio communication beyond 

ground-wave or line-of-sight ranges?

A.  Solar activity

B.  Lunar tidal effects

C.  The F1 region of the ionosphere

D.  The F2 region of the ionosphere

G3A10 @G3A10 (B)

Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation?

A.  Subaudible-frequency and audio-frequency emissions

B.  Electromagnetic and particle emissions

C.  Polar-region and equatorial emissions

D.  Infrared and gamma-ray emissions

G3A11 @G3A11 (C)

When sunspot numbers are high, what is the affect on radio 

communications?

A.  High-frequency radio signals are absorbed

B.  Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance 

communication

C.  Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is 

enhanced

D.  High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

G3B  Maximum usable frequency; propagation "hops"

G3B01 @G3B01 (B)

If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) on the path from Minnesota to 

France is 24 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a 

successful contact?

A.  10 meters

B.  15 meters

C.  20 meters

D.  40 meters

G3B02 @G3B02 (C)

If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) on the path from Ohio to Germany 

is 17 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful 

contact?

A.  80 meters

B.  40 meters

C.  20 meters

D.  2 meters

G3B03 @G3B03 (C)

If the HF radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good on the 24-

MHz and 28-MHz bands for several days, when might you expect a similar 

condition to occur?

A.  7 days later

B.  14 days later

C.  28 days later

D.  90 days later

G3B04 @G3B04 (A)

What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is 

high enough to support 28-MHz propagation between your station and 

western Europe?

A.  Listen for signals on the 10-meter beacon frequency

B.  Listen for signals on the 20-meter beacon frequency

C.  Listen for signals on the 39-meter broadcast frequency

D.  Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz

G3B05 @G3B05 (A)

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the maximum 

usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?

A.  They are bent back to the earth

B.  They pass through the ionosphere

C.  They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

D.  They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

G3B06 @G3B06 (C)

Where would you tune to hear beacons that would help you determine 

propagation conditions on the 20-meter band?

A.  28.2 MHz

B.  21.1 MHz

C.  14.1 MHz

D.  18.1 MHz

G3B07 @G3B07 (D)

During periods of low solar activity, which frequencies are the least 

reliable for long-distance communication?

A.  Frequencies below 3.5 MHz

B.  Frequencies near 3.5 MHz

C.  Frequencies on or above 10 MHz

D.  Frequencies above 20 MHz

G3B08 @G3B08 (D)

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually 

support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A.  At the summer solstice

B.  Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

C.  Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

D.  At any point in the solar cycle

G3B09 @G3B09 (A)

What is one characteristic of gray-line propagation?

A.  It is very efficient

B.  It improves local communications

C.  It is very poor

D.  It increases D-region absorption

G3B10 @G3B10 (C)

What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is 

normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

A.  180 miles

B.  1200 miles

C.  2500 miles

D.  None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation

G3B11 @G3B11 (B)

What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is 

normally covered in one hop using the E region?

A.  180 miles

B.  1200 miles

C.  2500 miles

D.  None of these choices is correct

G3C  Height of ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF 

scatter

G3C01 @G3C01 (B)

What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E region?

A.  45 miles

B.  70 miles

C.  200 miles

D.  1200 miles

G3C02 @G3C02 (A)

When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your 

location?

A.  At noon during the summer

B.  At midnight during the summer

C.  At dusk in the spring and fall

D.  At noon during the winter

G3C03 @G3C03 (C)

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest-distance 

radio-wave propagation?

A.  Because it exists only at night

B.  Because it is the lowest ionospheric region

C.  Because it is the highest ionospheric region

D.  Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other 

ionospheric regions

G3C04 @G3C04 (D)

What is the "critical angle" as used in radio-wave propagation?

A.  The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the 

earth under specific ionospheric conditions

B.  The compass direction of a distant station

C.  The compass direction opposite that of a distant station

D.  The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the 

earth under specific ionospheric conditions

G3C05 @G3C05 (C)

What is the main reason the 160-, 80- and 40-meter amateur bands tend 

to be useful only for short-distance communications during daylight 

hours?

A.  Because of a lack of activity

B.  Because of auroral propagation

C.  Because of D-region absorption

D.  Because of magnetic flux

G3C06 @G3C06 (B)

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

A.  High intelligibility

B.  A wavering sound

C.  Reversed modulation

D.  Reversed sidebands

G3C07 @G3C07 (D)

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A.  Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field

B.  Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal

C.  The state of the E-region at the point of refraction

D.  Energy scattered into the skip zone through several radio-wave 

paths

G3C08 @G3C08 (A)

Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?

A.  Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip 

zone

B.  Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy

C.  Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal energy

D.  The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal energy

G3C09 @G3C09 (B)

What type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at 

a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but too near for normal 

sky-wave propagation?

A.  Ground wave

B.  Scatter

C.  Sporadic-E skip

D.  Short-path skip

G3C10 @G3C10 (D)

When does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur?

A.  When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region absorption is 

high

B.  At night

C.  When the F1 and F2 regions are combined

D.  When communicating on frequencies above the maximum usable 

frequency (MUF)

G3C11 @G3C11 (D)

What is one way the vertical incidence critical frequency measurement 

might be used?

A.  It can be used to measure noise arriving vertically from outer 

space

B.  It can be used to measure the vertical angle at which to set your 

beam antenna

C.  It can be used to determine the size of coronal holes in the 

ionosphere

D.  It can be used to determine the maximum usable frequency for long-

distance communication at the time of measurement

SUBELEMENT G4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 

Groups]

G4A  Two-tone test; electronic TR switch; amplifier neutralization

G4A01 @G4A01 (C)

What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity of a 

single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an 

oscilloscope?

A.  Normal speech

B.  An audio-frequency sine wave

C.  Two audio-frequency sine waves

D.  An audio-frequency square wave

G4A02 @G4A02 (C)

When testing the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband transmitter, 

what kind of audio tones are fed into the microphone input and on what 

kind of instrument is the transmitter output observed?

A.  Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is 

observed on an oscilloscope

B.  Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is 

observed on a distortion analyzer

C.  Two non harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is 

observed on an oscilloscope

D.  Two non harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is 

observed on a distortion analyzer

G4A03 @G4A03 (D)

What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the linearity of 

a single-sideband phone transmitter?

A.  20 Hz and 20-kHz tones must be used

B.  1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used

C.  Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the 

transmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related

D.  Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the 

transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically related

G4A04 @G4A04 (D)

What measurement can be made of a single-sideband phone transmitter's 

amplifier by performing a two-tone test using an oscilloscope?

A.  Its percent of frequency modulation

B.  Its percent of carrier phase shift

C.  Its frequency deviation

D.  Its linearity

G4A05 @G4A05 (A)

At what point in an HF transceiver block diagram would an electronic 

TR switch normally appear?

A.  Between the transmitter and low-pass filter

B.  Between the low-pass filter and antenna

C.  At the antenna feed point

D.  At the power supply feed point

G4A06 @G4A06 (C)

Why is an electronic TR switch preferable to a mechanical one?

A.  It allows greater receiver sensitivity

B.  Its circuitry is simpler

C.  It has a higher operating speed

D.  It allows cleaner output signals

G4A07 @G4A07 (A)

As a power amplifier is tuned, what reading on its grid-current meter 

indicates the best neutralization?

A.  A minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed

B.  A maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed

C.  Minimum grid current

D.  Maximum grid current

G4A08 @G4A08 (D)

Why is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube amplifiers?

A.  To reduce the limits of loaded Q

B.  To reduce grid-to-cathode leakage

C.  To cancel AC hum from the filament transformer

D.  To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode 

capacitance

G4A09 @G4A09 (C)

In a properly neutralized RF amplifier, what type of feedback is used?

A.  5%

B.  10%

C.  Negative

D.  Positive

G4A10 @G4A10 (B)

What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?

A.  It controls differential gain

B.  It cancels the effects of positive feedback

C.  It eliminates AC hum from the power supply

D.  It reduces incidental grid modulation

G4A11 @G4A11 (B)

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a 

transmitter?

A.  To limit the modulation index

B.  To eliminate self oscillations

C.  To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

D.  To keep the carrier on frequency

G4B  Test equipment: oscilloscope; signal tracer; antenna noise 

bridge; monitoring oscilloscope; field-strength meters

G4B01 @G4B01 (D)

What item of test equipment contains horizontal- and vertical-channel 

amplifiers?

A.  An ohmmeter

B.  A signal generator

C.  An ammeter

D.  An oscilloscope

G4B02 @G4B02 (D)

What is a digital oscilloscope?

A.  An oscilloscope used only for signal tracing in digital circuits

B.  An oscilloscope used only for troubleshooting computers

C.  An oscilloscope used only for troubleshooting switching power 

supply circuits

D.  An oscilloscope designed around digital technology rather than 

analog technology

G4B03 @G4B03 (D)

How would a signal tracer normally be used?

A.  To identify the source of radio transmissions

B.  To make exact drawings of signal waveforms

C.  To show standing wave patterns on open-wire feed-lines

D.  To identify an inoperative stage in a receiver

G4B04 @G4B04 (B)

Why would you use a noise bridge?

A.  To measure the noise figure of an antenna or other electrical 

circuit

B.  To measure the impedance of an antenna or other electrical circuit

C.  To cancel electrical noise picked up by an antenna

D.  To tune out noise in a receiver

G4B05 @G4B05 (C)

How is a noise bridge normally used?

A.  It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the antenna's 

noise figure

B.  It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and is tuned 

for minimum SWR

C.  It is connected between a receiver and an antenna of unknown 

impedance and is tuned for minimum noise

D.  It is connected between an antenna and ground and is tuned for 

minimum SWR

G4B06 @G4B06 (A)

What is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of a CW 

or single-sideband phone transmitter?

A.  A monitoring oscilloscope

B.  A field-strength meter

C.  A sidetone monitor

D.  A signal tracer and an audio amplifier

G4B07 @G4B07 (D)

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring 

oscilloscope when checking the quality of a transmitted signal?

A.  The IF output of a monitoring receiver

B.  The audio input of the transmitter

C.  The RF signals of a nearby receiving antenna

D.  The RF output of the transmitter

G4B08 @G4B08 (A)

What instrument can be used to determine the horizontal radiation 

pattern of an antenna?

A.  A field-strength meter

B.  A grid-dip meter

C.  An oscilloscope

D.  A signal tracer and an audio amplifier

G4B09 @G4B09 (C)

How is a field-strength meter normally used?

A.  To determine the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line

B.  To check the output modulation of a transmitter

C.  To monitor relative RF output

D.  To increase average transmitter output

G4B10 @G4B10 (A)

What simple instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output 

during antenna and transmitter adjustments?

A.  A field-strength meter

B.  An antenna noise bridge

C.  A multimeter

D.  A metronome

G4B11 @G4B11 (C)

By how many times must the power output of a transmitter be increased 

to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S8 to S9?

A.  Approximately 2 times

B.  Approximately 3 times

C.  Approximately 4 times

D.  Approximately 5 times

G4C  Audio rectification in consumer electronics; RF ground

G4C01 @G4C01 (B)

What devices would you install in home-entertainment systems to reduce 

or eliminate audio-frequency interference?

A.  Bypass inductors

B.  Bypass capacitors

C.  Metal-oxide varistors

D.  Bypass resistors

G4C02 @G4C02 (B)

What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is the 

cause of interference to a nearby telephone?

A.  Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment

B.  Install RFI filters at the affected telephone

C.  Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use

D.  Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier

G4C03 @G4C03 (C)

What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio 

rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission occurs?

A.  A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air

B.  On-and-off humming or clicking

C.  Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals

D.  Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals

G4C04 @G4C04 (A)

What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio 

rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?

A.  On-and-off humming or clicking

B.  Audible, possibly distorted speech

C.  Muffled, severely distorted speech

D.  A steady whistling

G4C05 @G4C05 (C)

How can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of your 

transmitter's signals?

A.  By using a solid-state transmitter

B.  By using CW emission only

C.  By ensuring that all station equipment is properly grounded

D.  By installing bypass capacitors on all power supply rectifiers

G4C06 @G4C06 (D)

If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 33 feet 

down to a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you touch the 

front panel of your HF transceiver?

A.  Because the ground rod is not making good contact with moist earth

B.  Because the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not working to 

start the cooling fan

C.  Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy to 

take an easier path out of the transceiver through you

D.  Because the ground wire is a resonant length on several HF bands 

and acts more like an antenna than an RF ground connection

G4C07 @G4C07 (A)

Which of the following is NOT an important reason to have a good 

station ground?

A.  To reduce the cost of operating a station

B.  To reduce electrical noise

C.  To reduce interference

D.  To reduce the possibility of electric shock

G4C08 @G4C08 (A)

What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur station?

A.  Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible

B.  Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity

C.  Drive the ground rod at least 14 feet into the ground

D.  Make a couple of loops in the ground wire where it connects to 

your station

G4C09 @G4C09 (B)

Which of the following statements about station grounding is NOT true?

A.  Braid from RG-213 coaxial cable makes a good conductor to tie 

station equipment together into a station ground

B.  Only transceivers and power amplifiers need to be tied into a 

station ground

C.  According to the National Electrical Code, there should be only 

one grounding system in a building

D.  The minimum length for a good ground rod is 8 feet

G4C10 @G4C10 (C)

Which of the following statements about station grounding is true?

A.  The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied 

together with high-impedance conductors

B.  If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good 

conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground

C.  RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor 

if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire

D.  A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment

G4C11 @G4C11 (D)

Which of the following is NOT covered in the National Electrical Code?

A.  Minimum conductor sizes for different lengths of amateur antennas

B.  The size and composition of grounding conductors

C.  Electrical safety inside the ham shack

D.  The RF exposure limits of the human body

G4D  Speech processors; PEP calculations; wire sizes and fuses

G4D01 @G4D01 (D)

What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with 

a single-sideband phone transmitter?

A.  It reduces average transmitter power requirements

B.  It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone

C.  It improves voice-frequency fidelity

D.  It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver

G4D02 @G4D02 (B)

If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what will a 

speech processor do to the transmitter's power?

A.  It will increase the output PEP

B.  It will add nothing to the output PEP

C.  It will decrease the peak power output

D.  It will decrease the average power output

G4D03 @G4D03 (B)

How is the output PEP of a transmitter calculated if an oscilloscope 

is used to measure the transmitter's peak load voltage across a 

resistive load?

A.  PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)] / (RL)

B.  PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)] / RL

C.  PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL)

D.  PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)] / RL

G4D04 @G4D04 (A)

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 

200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the 

transmitter output?

A.  100 watts

B.  200 watts

C.  400 watts

D.  1000 watts

G4D05 @G4D05 (B)

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 

500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the 

transmitter output?

A.  500 watts

B.  625 watts

C.  1250 watts

D.  2500 watts

G4D06 @G4D06 (B)

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier transmitter if an 

average-reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output 

indicates 1060 watts?

A.  530 watts

B.  1060 watts

C.  1500 watts

D.  2120 watts

G4D07 @G4D07 (A)

Which wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses 

in a 240-VAC primary (single phase) power supply?

A.  Only the "hot" (black and red) wires

B.  Only the "neutral" (white) wire

C.  Only the ground (bare) wire

D.  All wires

G4D08 @G4D08 (A)

What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 120-VAC household 

lighting circuit?

A.  AWG number 14

B.  AWG number 16

C.  AWG number 18

D.  AWG number 22

G4D09 @G4D09 (D)

What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 120-VAC household 

appliance circuit?

A.  AWG number 20

B.  AWG number 16

C.  AWG number 14

D.  AWG number 12

G4D10 @G4D10 (D)

What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a 

household appliance circuit using AWG number 12 wiring?

A.  100 amperes

B.  60 amperes

C.  30 amperes

D.  20 amperes

G4D11 @G4D11 (A)

What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a 

household appliance circuit using AWG number 14 wiring?

A.  15 amperes

B.  20 amperes

C.  30 amperes

D.  60 amperes

G4E  Common connectors used in amateur stations: types; when to use; 

fastening methods; precautions when using; HF mobile radio 

installations; emergency power systems; generators; battery storage 

devices and charging sources including solar; wind generation

G4E01 @G4E01 (D)

Which of the following connectors is NOT designed for RF transmission 

lines?

A.  PL-259

B.  Type N

C.  BNC

D.  DB-25

G4E02 @G4E02 (D)

When installing a power plug on a line cord, which of the following 

should you do?

A.  Twist the wire strands neatly and fasten them so they don't cause 

a short circuit

B.  Observe the correct wire color conventions for plug terminals

C.  Use proper grounding techniques

D.  All of these choices

G4E03 @G4E03 (A)

Which of the following power connections would be the best for a 100-

watt HF mobile installation?

A.  A direct, fused connection to the battery using heavy gauge wire

B.  A connection to the fuse-protected accessory terminal strip or 

distribution panel

C.  A connection to the cigarette lighter

D.  A direct connection to the alternator or generator

G4E04 @G4E04 (D)

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver 

from an automobile's cigarette lighter socket?

A.  The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

B.  The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of 

modern HF transceivers

C.  The power from the socket is never adequately filtered for HF 

transceiver operation

D.  The socket's wiring may not be adequate for the current being 

drawn by the transceiver

G4E05 @G4E05 (C)

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile 

transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

A.  The vehicle's electrical system wiring

B.  The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

C.  The HF mobile antenna system

D.  The rating of the vehicle's alternator or generator

G4E06 @G4E06 (D)

Which of the following is true of both a permanent or temporary 

emergency generator installation?

A.  The generator should be located in a well ventilated area

B.  The installation should be grounded

C.  Extra fuel supplies, especially gasoline, should not be stored in 

an inhabited area

D.  All of these choices

G4E07 @G4E07 (C)

Which of the following is true of a lead-acid storage battery as it is 

being charged?

A.  It tends to cool off

B.  It gives off explosive oxygen gas

C.  It gives off explosive hydrogen gas

D.  It takes in oxygen from the surrounding air

G4E08 @G4E08 (A)

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is directly changed 

into electricity?

A.  Photovoltaic conversion

B.  Photosensitive conduction

C.  Photosynthesis

D.  Photocoupling

G4E09 @G4E09 (D)

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well 

illuminated photovoltaic cell?

A.  0.02 VDC

B.  0.2 VDC

C.  1.38 VDC

D.  0.5 VDC

G4E10 @G4E10 (A)

What determines the proper size solar panel to use in a solar-powered 

battery-charging circuit?

A.  The panel's voltage rating and maximum output current

B.  The amount of voltage available per square inch of panel

C.  The panel's open-circuit current

D.  The panel's short-circuit voltage

G4E11 @G4E11 (C)

What is the biggest disadvantage to using wind power as the primary 

source of power for an emergency station?

A.  The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical 

energy is less that 2 percent

B.  The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible 

with amateur equipment

C.  A large electrical storage system is needed to supply power when 

the wind is not blowing

D.  All of these choices are correct

SUBELEMENT G5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]

G5A  Impedance, including matching; resistance, including ohm; 

reactance; inductance; capacitance; and metric divisions of these 

values

G5A01 @G5A01 (C)

What is impedance?

A.  The electric charge stored by a capacitor

B.  The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only 

capacitance

C.  The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit

D.  The force of repulsion between one electric field and another with 

the same charge

G5A02 @G5A02 (B)

What is reactance?

A.  Opposition to DC caused by resistors

B.  Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors

C.  A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits

D.  A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-

energized

G5A03 @G5A03 (D)

In an inductor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?

A.  Resistance

B.  Reluctance

C.  Admittance

D.  Reactance

G5A04 @G5A04 (C)

In a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?

A.  Resistance

B.  Reluctance

C.  Reactance

D.  Admittance

G5A05 @G5A05 (D)

How does a coil react to AC?

A.  As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance 

decreases

B.  As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance 

increases

C.  As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance 

decreases

D.  As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance 

increases

G5A06 @G5A06 (A)

How does a capacitor react to AC?

A.  As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance 

decreases

B.  As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance 

increases

C.  As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance 

increases

D.  As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance 

decreases

G5A07 @G5A07 (A)

When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load?

A.  When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the 

source

B.  When the load resistance is infinite

C.  When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding 

current

D.  When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core 

transformers

G5A08 @G5A08 (D)

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the 

internal impedance of the power source?

A.  The source delivers minimum power to the load

B.  The electrical load is shorted

C.  No current can flow through the circuit

D.  The source delivers maximum power to the load

G5A09 @G5A09 (A)

Why is impedance matching important?

A.  So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

B.  So the load will draw minimum power from the source

C.  To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the 

circuit

D.  To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are 

equal

G5A10 @G5A10 (B)

What unit is used to measure reactance?

A.  Mho

B.  Ohm

C.  Ampere

D.  Siemens

G5A11 @G5A11 (B)

What unit is used to measure impedance?

A.  Volt

B.  Ohm

C.  Ampere

D.  Watt

G5B  Decibel; Ohm's Law; current and voltage dividers; electrical 

power calculations and series and parallel components; transformers 

(either voltage or impedance); sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) value

G5B01 @G5B01 (B)

A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?

A.  1 dB higher

B.  3 dB higher

C.  6 dB higher

D.  12 dB higher

G5B02 @G5B02 (B)

In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch 

resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the 

branch resistors?

A.  It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor

B.  It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor

C.  It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit

D.  It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by the 

total number of resistors

G5B03 @G5B03 (B)

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to 

an 800-ohm load?

A.  0.5 watts

B.  200 watts

C.  400 watts

D.  320,000 watts

G5B04 @G5B04 (D)

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb 

that draws 0.2 amperes?

A.  60 watts

B.  24 watts

C.  6 watts

D.  2.4 watts

G5B05 @G5B05 (A)

How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0 milliamperes flow through 

1.25 kilohms?

A.  Approximately 61 milliwatts

B.  Approximately 39 milliwatts

C.  Approximately 11 milliwatts

D.  Approximately 9 milliwatts

G5B06 @G5B06 (C)

What is the voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a 

transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

A.  2370 volts

B.  540 volts

C.  26.7 volts

D.  5.9 volts

G5B07 @G5B07 (A)

What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier 

having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm 

impedance?

A.  12.2 to 1

B.  24.4 to 1

C.  150 to 1

D.  300 to 1

G5B08 @G5B08 (D)

What is the impedance of a speaker that requires a transformer with a 

turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having an output 

impedance of 2000 ohms?

A.  576 ohms

B.  83.3 ohms

C.  7.0 ohms

D.  3.5 ohms

G5B09 @G5B09 (B)

A DC voltage equal to what value of an applied sine-wave AC voltage 

would produce the same amount of  heat over time in a resistive 

element?

A.  The peak-to-peak value

B.  The RMS value

C.  The average value

D.  The peak value

G5B10 @G5B10 (D)

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS 

voltage of 120 volts?

A.  84.8 volts

B.  169.7 volts

C.  204.8 volts

D.  339.4 volts

G5B11 @G5B11 (B)

A sine wave of 17 volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS?

A.  8.5 volts

B.  12 volts

C.  24 volts

D.  34 volts

SUBELEMENT G6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS  [1 exam question - 1 group]

G6A  Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers and transistors; 

etc.

G6A01 @G6A01 (C)

If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen to 

the resistance?

A.  It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade

B.  It will stay the same

C.  It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient 

rating

D.  It will become time dependent

G6A02 @G6A02 (D)

What type of capacitor is often used in power-supply circuits to 

filter the rectified AC?

A.  Disc ceramic

B.  Vacuum variable

C.  Mica

D.  Electrolytic

G6A03 @G6A03 (D)

What function does a capacitor serve if it is used in a power-supply 

circuit to filter transient voltage spikes across the transformer's 

secondary winding?

A.  Clipper capacitor

B.  Trimmer capacitor

C.  Feedback capacitor

D.  Suppressor capacitor

G6A04 @G6A04 (B)

Where is the source of energy connected in a transformer?

A.  To the secondary winding

B.  To the primary winding

C.  To the core

D.  To the plates

G6A05 @G6A05 (A)

If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what 

is current in the primary winding called?

A.  Magnetizing current

B.  Direct current

C.  Excitation current

D.  Stabilizing current

G6A06 @G6A06 (C)

What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power-supply rectifier?

A.  The maximum transient voltage the rectifier will handle in the 

conducting direction

B.  1.4 times the AC frequency

C.  The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-

conducting direction

D.  2.8 times the AC frequency

G6A07 @G6A07 (A)

What are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon-

diode rectifiers used in power-supply circuits?

A.  Peak inverse voltage; average forward current

B.  Average power; average voltage

C.  Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage

D.  Peak load impedance; peak voltage

G6A08 @G6A08 (A)

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier 

connected to a resistive load?

A.  A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

B.  A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

C.  A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

D.  A steady DC voltage

G6A09 @G6A09 (B)

A half-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each cycle?

A.  90 degrees

B.  180 degrees

C.  270 degrees

D.  360 degrees

G6A10 @G6A10 (D)

A full-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each cycle?

A.  90 degrees

B.  180 degrees

C.  270 degrees

D.  360 degrees

G6A11 @G6A11 (A)

When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to increase the 

current-handling capacity of a power supply, what is the purpose of 

the resistor connected in series with each diode?

A.  The resistors ensure that one diode doesn't take most of the 

current

B.  The resistors ensure the thermal stability of the power supply

C.  The resistors regulate the power supply output voltage

D.  The resistors act as swamping resistors in the circuit