Extra Class Question Pool

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Amateur Extra Class Question Pool

valid 7/01/2002 thru 06/30/2005

Element 4 Extra Class Question Pool - This Pool Takes Effect July 1, 2002

*  The questions contained within this pool must be used in all Extra class 

examinations beginning July 1, 2002, and is intended to be used up through June 

30, 2005.

* The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis following each 

question number [eg, in E1A01 (B), position B contains the correct answer text].

* Questions or comments regarding this question pool can be directed to the ARRL 

VEC at vec@arrl.org 

Question Pool 

ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS 

as released by the Question Pool Committee 

of the National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators 

November 30, 2001

SUBELEMENT E1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [7 Exam Questions -- 7 Groups]

E1A Operating standards: frequency privileges for Extra class amateurs; emission 

standards; message forwarding; frequency sharing between ITU Regions; FCC 

modification of station license; 30-meter band sharing; stations aboard ships or 

aircraft; telemetry; telecommand of an amateur station; authorized telecommand 

transmissions

E1A01 (B) [97.301(b)]

What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized to 

Amateur Extra Class control operators?

A.  3525-3775 kHz

B.  3500-3525 kHz

C.  3700-3750 kHz

D.  3500-3550 kHz

E1A02 (C)  [97.301(b)]

What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized to 

Amateur Extra class control operators?

A.  3775-3800 kHz

B.  3800-3850 kHz

C.  3750-3775 kHz

D.  3800-3825 kHz

E1A03 (A) [97.301(b)]

What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized to 

Amateur Extra class control operators?

A.  7000-7025 kHz

B.  7000-7050 kHz

C.  7025-7050 kHz

D.  7100-7150 kHz

E1A04 (D) [97.301(b)]

What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized to 

Amateur Extra Class control operators?

A.  14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz

B.  14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz

C.  14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz

D.  14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz

E1A05 (C) [97.301(b)]

What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized to 

Amateur Extra Class control operators?

A.  21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz

B.  21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz

C.  21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz

D.  21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz

E1A06 (A) [97.301(b)]

Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized to only control 

operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?

A.  80, 75, 40, 20 and 15 meters

B.  80, 40, and 20 meters

C.  75, 40, 30 and 10 meters

D.  160, 80, 40 and 20 meters

E1A07 (B) [97.301(b)]

Within the 20-meter band, what is the amount of spectrum authorized to only 

control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?

A.  25 kHz

B.  50 kHz

C.  None

D.  25 MHz

E1A08 (A) [97.301(b)]

Which frequency bands contain two segments authorized to only control operators 

holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license, CEPT radio-amateur Class 1 

license or Class 1 IARP?

A.  80/75, 20 and 15 meters

B.  40, 30 and 20 meters

C.  30, 20 and 17 meters

D.  30, 20 and 12 meters

E1A09 (D) [97.307(c)]

What must an amateur station licensee do if a spurious emission from the station 

causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station?

A.  Pay a fine each time it happens

B.  Submit a written explanation to the FCC

C.  Forfeit the station license if it happens more than once

D.  Eliminate or reduce the interference

E1A10 (A) [97.307(d)]

What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a 

transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power of 5 

watts or greater on an amateur service HF band?

A.  The lesser of 50 milliwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental 

emission

B.  60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission

C.  10 microwatts

D.  The lesser of 25 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental 

emission

E1A11 (A) [97.307(d)]

What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a 

transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power less 

than 5 watts on an amateur service HF band?

A.  30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission

B.  60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission

C.  10 microwatts

D.  25 microwatts

E1A12 (A) [97.307(e)]

What is the maximum mean power permitted to any spurious emission from a 

transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power greater 

than 25 watts on an amateur service VHF band?

A.  60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission

B.  40 dB below the below the mean power of fundamental emission

C.  10 microwatts

D.  25 microwatts

E1A13 (A) [97.307(e)]

What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a 

transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on an amateur service VHF band?

A.  The lesser of 25 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental 

emission

B.  The lesser of 50 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental 

emission

C.  20 microwatts

D.  50 microwatts

E1A14 (B) [97.219(b), (d)]

If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system inadvertently 

forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is accountable for the 

rules violation?

A.  The control operator of the packet bulletin board station

B.  The control operator of the originating station and conditionally the first 

forwarding station

C.  The control operators of all the stations in the system

D.  The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating 

the source from which they accept communications

E1A15 (A) [97.219(c)]

If your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a communication 

that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you should take?

A.  Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it

B.  Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with 

FCC rules

C.  Notify the nearest FCC Enforcement Bureau office

D.  Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1A16 (A) [97.303]

For each ITU Region, how is each frequency band allocated internationally to the 

amateur service designated?

A.  Primary service or secondary service

B.  Primary service

C.  Secondary service

D.  Co-secondary service

E1A17 (D) [97.27]

Why might the FCC modify an amateur station license?

A.  To relieve crowding in certain bands

B.  To better prepare for a time of national emergency

C.  To enforce a radio quiet zone within one mile of an airport

D.  To promote the public interest, convenience and necessity

E1A18 (A) [97.303(d)]

What are the sharing requirements for an amateur station transmitting in the 30-

meter band?

A.  It must not cause harmful interference to stations in the fixed service 

authorized by other nations

B.  There are no sharing requirements

C.  Stations in the fixed service authorized by other nations must not cause 

harmful interference to amateur stations in the same country

D.  Stations in the fixed service authorized by other nations must not cause 

harmful interference to amateur stations in another country

E1A19 (A) [97.11(a)]

If an amateur station is installed on board a ship and is separate from the ship 

radio installation, what condition must be met before the station may transmit?

A.  Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship

B.  Its antenna must be separate from the main ship antennas, transmitting only 

when the main radios are not in use

C.  It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship 

power supply

D.  Its operator must have an FCC Marine endorsement on his or her amateur 

operator license

E1A20 (A) [97.3(a)(45)]

What is the definition of the term telemetry?

A.  A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring 

instrument

B.  A two-way interactive transmission

C.  A two-way single channel transmission of data

D.  A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a 

device at a distance

E1A21 (D)  [97.3(a)(43)]

What is the definition of the term telecommand?

A.  A one way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring 

instrument

B.  A two-way interactive transmission

C.  A two-way single channel transmission of data

D.  A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a 

device at a distance

E1A22 (D) [97.211(b)]

When may an amateur station transmit special codes intended to obscure the 

meaning of messages?

A.  Never under any circumstances

B.  Only when a Special Temporary Authority has been obtained from the FCC

C.  Only when an Amateur Extra Class operator is the station control operator

D.  When sending telecommand messages to a station in space operation

E1B Station restrictions: restrictions on station locations; restricted 

operation; teacher as control operator; station antenna structures; definition 

and operation of remote control and automatic control; control link

E1B01 (A) [97.13(a)]

Which of the following factors might restrict the physical location of an 

amateur station apparatus or antenna structure?

A.  The land may have environmental importance; or it is significant in American 

history, architecture or culture

B.  The location's political or societal importance

C.  The location's geographical or horticultural importance

D.  The location's international importance, requiring consultation with one or 

more foreign governments before installation

E1B02 (A) [97.13(b)]

Outside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an amateur station 

be located without concern for protecting the facility from harmful 

interference?

A.  1 mile

B.  3 miles

C.  10 miles

D.  30 miles

E1B03 (C) [97.13(a)]

What must be done before an amateur station is placed within an officially 

designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the 

National Register of Historical Places?

A.  A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

B.  A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society

C.  An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC

D.  A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

E1B04 (D) [97.121(a )]

If an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a domestic 

broadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design, on what 

frequencies may the operation of the amateur station be restricted?

A.  On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station

B.  On all frequencies below 30 MHz

C.  On all frequencies above 30 MHz

D.  On the frequency or frequencies used when the interference occurs

E1B05 (C) [97.113(c)]

When may an amateur operator accept compensation for serving as the control 

operator of an amateur station used in a classroom?

A.  Only when the amateur operator does not accept pay during periods of time 

when the amateur station is used

B.  Only when the classroom is in a correctional institution

C.  Only when the amateur operator is paid as an incident of a teaching position 

during periods of time when the station is used by that teacher as a part of 

classroom instruction at an educational institution

D.  Only when the station is restricted to making contacts with similar stations 

at other educational institutions

E1B06 (B) [97.113(c)]

Who may accept compensation for serving as a control operator in a classroom at 

an educational institution?

A.  Any licensed amateur operator

B.  Only an amateur operator accepting such pay as an incident of a teaching 

position during times when the station is used by that teacher as a part of 

classroom instruction

C.  Only teachers at correctional institutions

D.  Only students at educational or correctional institutions

E1B07 (B)[97.15(a)

If an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what height 

restrictions apply?

A.  The structure must not extend more than 200 feet above average height of 

terrain

B.  The structure must be no higher than 200 feet above the ground level at its 

site

C.  There are no height restrictions since the structure would not be a hazard 

to aircraft in a valley or canyon

D.  The structure must not extend more than 200 feet above the top of the valley 

or canyon

E1B08 (D) [97.15b]

What limits must local authorities observe when legislating height and dimension 

restrictions for an amateur station antenna structure?

A.  FAA regulations specify a minimum height for amateur antenna structures 

located near airports

B.  FCC regulations specify a 200 foot minimum height for amateur antenna 

structures

C.  State and local restrictions of amateur antenna structures are not allowed

D.  Such regulation must reasonably accommodate amateur service communications 

and must constitute the minimum practicable regulation to accomplish the state 

or local authorities legitimate purpose

E1B09 (A) [97.15a]

If you are installing an amateur radio station antenna at a site within 5 miles 

from a public use airport, what additional rules apply?

A.  You must evaluate the height of your antenna based on the FCC Part 17 

regulations

B.  No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 200 feet 

in height

C.  You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the Environmental 

Protection Agency before construction begins

D.  You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1B10 (D) [97.3a38]

What is meant by a remotely controlled station?

A.  A station operated away from its regular home location

B.  Control of a station from a point located other than at the station 

transmitter

C.  A station operating under automatic control

D.  A station controlled indirectly through a control link

E1B11 (A) [97.109(d), 201(d), 97.203(d), 97.205(d)]

Which of the following amateur stations may not be operated under automatic 

control?

A.  Remote control of model aircraft

B.  Beacon station

C.  Auxiliary station

D.  Repeater station

E1B12 (A) [97.3(a)(6), 97.109(d)]

What is meant by automatic control of a station?

A.  The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator 

does not have to be present at the control point

B.  A station operating with its output power controlled automatically

C.  Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to 

be present at the control point at all times

D.  The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled 

station

E1B13 (B) [97.3(a)(6), 97.109(d)]

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic 

control differ from one under local control?

A.  Under local control there is no control operator

B.  Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present 

at the control point

C.  Under automatic control there is no control operator

D.  Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a 

control point

E1B14 (C) [97.3(a)(38)]

What is a control link?

A.  A device that automatically controls an unattended station

B.  An automatically operated link between two stations

C.  The means of control between a control point and a remotely controlled 

station

D.  A device that limits the time of a station's transmission

E1B15 (D) [97.3(a)(38)]

What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control 

point and a remotely controlled station?

A.  A tone link

B.  A wire control

C.  A remote control

D.  A control link

E1C Reciprocal operating: reciprocal operating authority; purpose of reciprocal 

agreement rules; alien control operator privileges; identification (Note: This 

includes CEPT and IARP)

E1C01 (A) [97.5(c),(d), (e), 97.107]

What is an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation?

A.  An FCC authorization to the holder of an amateur license issued by certain 

foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the US

B.  An FCC permit to allow a US licensed amateur to operate in a foreign nation 

except Canada

C.  An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle third-party 

traffic between the US and the amateur's own nation

D.  An FCC agreement with another country allowing the passing of third-party 

traffic between amateurs of the two nations

E1C02 (B) [97.107]

Who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC 

regulates the amateur service?

A.  Anyone holding a valid amateur service license issued by a foreign 

government

B.  Any non-US citizen holding an amateur service license issued by their 

government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement

C.  Anyone holding a valid amateur service license issued by a foreign 

government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement

D.  Any non-US citizen holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign 

government, as long as the person is a citizen of that country

E1C03 (C)  [97.107]

What are the frequency privileges authorized for alien reciprocal operation?

A.  Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent US amateur operator license

B.  Those that the alien has in his or her own country

C.  Those authorized to the alien by his country of citizenship, but not to 

exceed those authorized to Amateur Extra Class operators

D.  Those approved by the International Amateur Radio Union

E1C04 (D) [97.119(g)]

What indicator must a Canadian amateur station include with the assigned call 

sign in the station identification announcement when operating in the US?

A.  No indicator is required

B.  The grid-square locator number for the location of the station must be 

included after the call sign

C.  The permit number and the call-letter district number of the station 

location must be included before the Canadian-assigned call sign

D.  The letter-numeral indicating the station location after the Canadian call 

sign and the closest city and state once during the communication

E1C05 (A) [97.107]

When may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur service license be authorized 

for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the amateur 

service?

A.  Never; US citizens are not eligible for alien reciprocal operation

B.  When the US citizen also holds citizenship in the foreign country

C.  When the US citizen was born in the foreign country

D.  When the US citizen has no current FCC amateur service license

E1C06 (A) [97.107]

Which of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur operator from being 

authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the 

amateur service?

A.  Not being a citizen of the country that issued the amateur service license

B.  Having citizenship in their own country but not US citizenship

C.  Holding only an amateur license issued by their own country but holding no 

FCC amateur service license grant

D.  Holding an amateur service license issued by their own country authorizing 

privileges beyond Amateur Extra Class operator privileges

E1C07 (B) [97.107(a)]

What special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a Canadian 

amateur service license may reciprocal operate in the US?

A.  A written FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation

B.  No special document is required

C.  The citizen must have an FCC-issued validation of their Canadian license

D.  The citizen must have an FCC-issued Certificate of US License Grant without 

Examination to operate for a period longer than 10 days

E1C08 (C) [97.107(b)]

What operating privileges does a properly licensed alien amateur have in the US, 

if the US and the alien amateur's home country have a multilateral or bilateral 

reciprocal operating agreement?

A.  All privileges of their home license

B.  All privileges of an Amateur Extra Class operator license

C.  Those authorized by their home license, not to exceed the operating 

privileges of an Amateur Extra Class operator license

D.  Those granted by the home license that match US privileges authorized to 

amateur operators in ITU Region 1

E1C09 (D) [97.5(c)]

From which locations may a licensed alien amateur operator be the control 

operator of an amateur station?

A.  Only locations within the boundaries of the 50 United States

B.  Only locations listed as the primary station location on an FCC amateur 

service license

C.  Only locations on ground within the US and its territories; no shipboard or 

aeronautical mobile operation is permitted

D.  Any location where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC

E1C10 (A) [97.5(d)]

Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC licensed US citizen 

to operate in many European countries and alien amateurs from many European 

countries to operate in the US?

A.  CEPT agreement

B.  IARP agreement

C.  ITU agreement

D.  All of these choices are correct

E1C11 (B) [97.5(e)]

Which of the following multilateral or bilateral operating arrangements allow an 

FCC licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to 

operate in each other's countries?

A.  CEPT agreement

B.  IARP agreement

C.  ITU agreement

D.  All of these choices are correct

E1C12 (D) [97.119(g)]

What additional station identification, in addition to his or her own call sign, 

does an alien operator supply when operating in the US under an FCC 

authorization for alien reciprocal operation?

A.  No additional operation is required

B.  The gird-square locator closest to his or her present location is included 

before the call

C.  The serial number of the permit and the call-letter district number of the 

station location is included before the call

D.  The letter-numeral indicating the station location in the US included before 

their call and the closest city and state given once during the communication

E1D Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES): definition; purpose; station 

registration; station license required; control operator requirements; control 

operator privileges; frequencies available; limitations on use of RACES 

frequencies; points of communication for RACES operation; permissible 

communications

E1D01 (B) [97.3(a)(37)]

What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?

A.  A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for 

communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services

B.  A radio service using amateur stations for civil defense communications 

during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies

C.  A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the 

public

D.  A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio 

operators for emergency communications

E1D02 (A) [97.3(a)(37)]

What is the purpose of RACES?

A.  To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies

B.  To provide emergency communications for boat or aircraft races

C.  To provide routine and emergency communications for athletic races

D.  To provide routine and emergency military communications

E1D03 (C) [97.407(a)]

With what organization must an amateur station be registered before 

participating in RACES?

A.  The Amateur Radio Emergency Service

B.  The US Department of Defense

C.  A civil defense organization

D.  The FCC Enforcement Bureau

E1D04 (C) [97.407(a)]

Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

A.  Only those licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

B.  Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a station licensed to a Technician 

class operator

C.  Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense 

organization for the area served

D.  Any FCC licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate 

Radio System (MARS)

E1D05 (A) [97.407(b)]

What frequencies are authorized normally to an amateur station participating in 

RACES?

A.  All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator

B.  Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

C.  Specific local government channels

D.  Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1D06 (B) [97.407(b)]

What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES 

during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force?

A.  All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator

B.  Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

C.  Specific local government channels

D.  Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1D07 (D) [97.407(b)]

What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation?

A.  Only those authorized to the civil defense organization

B.  Only those authorized to federal government communications

C.  Only the top 25 kHz of each amateur service band

D.  All frequencies authorized to the amateur service

E1D08 (A) [97.407(b)]

What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies 

available for RACES operation?

A.  An emergency during which the President's War Emergency Powers are invoked

B.  An emergency in only one of the United States would limit RACES operations 

to a single HF band

C.  An emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES operations to a 

single VHF band

D.  An emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life

E1D09 (C) [97.407(a)]

Who may be the control operator of a RACES station?

A.  Anyone holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license other than Novice

B.  Only an Amateur Extra Class operator licensee

C.  Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur operator license and is certified by 

a civil defense organization

D.  Any person certified as a RACES radio operator by a civil defense 

organization and who hold an FCC issued GMRS license

E1D10 (B) [97.407(c), (d)]

With which stations may amateur stations participating in RACES communicate?

A.  Any amateur station

B.  Amateur stations participating in RACES and specific other stations 

authorized by the responsible civil defense official

C.  Any amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications Service

D.  Any Citizens Band station that is also registered in RACES

E1D11 (C) [97.407(e)]

What communications are permissible in RACES?

A.  Any type of communications when there is no emergency

B.  Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications

C.  National defense or immediate safety of people and property and 

communications authorized by the area civil defense organization

D.  National defense and security or immediate safety of people and property 

communications authorized by the President

E1E Amateur Satellite Service: definition; purpose; station license required for 

space station; frequencies available; telecommand operation: definition; 

eligibility; telecommand station (definition); space telecommand station; 

special provisions; telemetry: definition; special provisions; space station: 

definition; eligibility; special provisions; authorized frequencies (space 

station); notification requirements; earth operation: definition; eligibility; 

authorized frequencies (Earth station)

E1E01 (C) [97.3(a)(3)]

What is the amateur-satellite service?

A.  A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self-

training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

B.  A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites

C.  A service using amateur stations on satellites for the purpose of self-

training, intercommunication and technical investigations

D.  A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for 

weather information gathering

E1E02 (A) [97.3(a)(40)]

What is a space station in the amateur-satellite service?

A.  An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

B.  An amateur station designed for communications with other amateur stations 

by means of Earth satellites

C.  An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or 

terminate functions of an Earth station

D.  An amateur station designed for communications with other amateur stations 

by reflecting signals off objects in space

E1E03 (A) [97.3(a)(44)]

What is a telecommand station in the amateur-satellite service?

A.  An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or 

terminate functions of a space station

B.  An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with 

other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

C.  An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

D.  An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of 

upper atmosphere data from space

E1E04 (A) [97.3(a)(16)]

What is an earth station in the amateur-satellite service?

A.  An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications 

with Amateur stations by means of objects in space

B.  An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites

C.  An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of 

upper atmosphere data from space

D.  Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E05 (D) [97.207]

Which of the following types of communications may space stations transmit?

A.  Automatic retransmission of signals from Earth stations and other space 

stations

B.  One-way communications

C.  Telemetry consisting of specially coded messages

D.  All of these choices are correct

E1E06 (D) [97.207 (a)]

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as a space station?

A.  Any except those of Technician Class operators

B.  Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

C.  Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

D.  Any FCC-licensed amateur station

E1E07 (A) [97.207(b)]

What special provision must a space station incorporate in order to comply with 

space station requirements?

A.  The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions 

by telecommand whenever so ordered by the FCC

B.  The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

C.  The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a 

change is ordered by NASA

D.  The station call sign must appear on all sides of the spacecraft

E1E08 (D) [97.207(g)(1)]

When must the licensee of a space station give the FCC International Bureau the 

first written pre-space notification?

A.  Any time before initiating the launch countdown for the spacecraft

B.  No less than 3 months after initiating construction of the space station

C.  No less that 12 months before launch of the space station platform

D.  No less than 27 months prior to initiating space station transmissions

E1E09 (A) [97.207]

Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?

A.  Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m

B.  Only 40 m, 20 m, 17m, 15 m and 10 m bands

C.  40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands

D.  All HF bands

E1E10 (A) [97.207]

Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

A.  2 meters

B.  2 meters and 1.25 meters

C.  6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

D.  6 meters and 2 meters

E1E11 (A) [97.207]

Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?

A.  70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm

B.  70 cm

C.  70 cm and 33 cm

D.  33 cm and 13 cm

E1E12 (B) [97.211 (a)]

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

A.  Any amateur station designated by NASA

B.  Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee

C.  Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

D.  All of these choices are correct

E1E13 (A) [97.211 (b)]

What unique privilege is afforded a telecommand station?

A.  A telecommand station may transmit command messages to the space station 

using codes intended to obscure their meaning

B.  A telecommand station may transmit music to the space station

C.  A telecommand station may transmit with a PEP output of 5000 watts

D.  A telecommand station is not required to transmit its call sign at the end 

of the communication

E1E14 (C) [97.207 (f)]

What is the term for space-to-Earth transmissions used to communicate the 

results of measurements made by a space station?

A.  Data transmission

B.  Frame check sequence

C.  Telemetry

D.  Space-to-Earth telemetry indicator (SETI) transmissions

E1E15 (D) [97.209 (a)]

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

A.  Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with 

the FCC International Bureau

B.  Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

C.  Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

D.  Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator 

license held by the control operator

E1F Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs): definition; VEC qualifications; VEC 

agreement; scheduling examinations; coordinating VEs; reimbursement for 

expenses; accrediting VEs; question pools; Volunteer Examiners (VEs): 

definition; requirements; accreditation; reimbursement for expenses; VE conduct; 

preparing an examination; examination elements; definition of code and written 

elements; preparation responsibility; examination requirements; examination 

credit; examination procedure; examination administration; temporary operating 

authority

E1F01 (D) [97.507 (a), (b), (c),97.523]

Who may prepare an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

A.  The VEC Question Pool Committee, which selects questions from the 

appropriate VEC question pool

B.  A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin

C.  An Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin

D.  An Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions from the 

appropriate VEC question pool

E1F02 (C) [97.507(b)]

Where are the questions listed that must be used in all written US amateur 

license examinations?

A.  In the instructions that each VEC give to their VEs

B.  In an FCC-maintained question pool

C.  In the VEC-maintained question pool

D.  In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

E1F03 (A) [97.523]

Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur 

license examination questions must be taken?

A.  All of the VECs

B.  The VE team

C.  The VE question pool team

D.  The FCC Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

E1F04 (C) [97.507(a)(1)]

Who must select from the VEC question pool the set of questions that are 

administered in an Element 3 examination?

A.  Only a VE holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant

B.  The VEC coordinating the examination session

C.  A VE holding an FCC-issued Amateur Extra or Advanced Class operator license 

grant

D.  The FCC Enforcement Bureau

E1F05 (B) [97.507(a)(2)]

Who must select from the VEC question pool the set of questions that are 

administered in an Element 2 examination?

A.  The VEC coordinating the examination session

B.  A VE holding an FCC-issued Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra 

Class operator license grant

C.  Only a VE holding an Amateur Extra or Advanced Class operator license grant

D.  The FCC Office of Engineering and Technology

E1F06 (C) [97.503(a)]

What is the purpose of an amateur operator telegraphy examination?

A.  It determines the examinee's level of commitment to the amateur service

B.  All of these choices are correct

C.  It proves that the examinee has the ability to send correctly by hand and to 

receive correctly by ear texts in the International Morse Code

D.  It helps preserve the proud tradition of radiotelegraphy skill in the 

amateur service

E1F07 (A) [97.503(b)]

What is the purpose of an Element 4 examination?

A.  It proves the examinee has the qualifications necessary to perform properly 

the duties of an Amateur Extra Class operator

B.  It proves the examinee is qualified as an electronics technician

C.  It proves the examinee is an electronics expert

D.  It proves that the examinee is an expert radio operator

E1F08 (C) [97.521]

What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator?

A.  A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license 

examinations

B.  A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license 

examinations

C.  An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to 

coordinate amateur operator license examinations 

D.  The person that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE 

session manager

E1F09 (B) [97.3(a)(48)]

What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

A.  An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow volunteer 

examiners to administer amateur license examinations

B.  An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator 

license examinations

C.  An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee

D.  An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer 

amateur operator license examinations

E1F10 (A) [97.509(a)]

What is a VE Team?

A.  A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur 

operator license

B.  The VEC staff

C.  One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license

D.  A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations

E1F11 (C) [97.509(b)(4)]

Which persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited?

A.  Persons holding less than an Advanced Class operator license

B.  Persons less than 21 years of age

C.  Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license 

suspended or revoked

D.  Persons who are employees of the federal government

E1F12 (D) [97.509(b)(1), 97.525]

What is the VE accreditation process?

A.  Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically 

accredited as a VE when the license is granted

B.  The amateur operator must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC 

Enforcement Bureau

C.  The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team

D.  Each VEC ensures that its Volunteer Examiner applicants meet FCC 

requirements to serve as VEs

E1F13 (A) [97.509(c)]

Where must the VE team be stationed while administering an examination?

A.  All administering VEs must all be present and observing the examinees 

throughout the entire examination

B.  The VEs must leave the room after handing out the exam(s) to allow the 

examinees to concentrate on the exam material

C.  The VEs may be elsewhere provide at least one VE is present and is observing 

the examinees throughout the entire examination

D.  The VEs may be anywhere as long as they each certify in writing that 

examination was administered properly

E1F14 (C) [97.509(c)]

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an 

amateur operator license examination session?

A.  The VEC coordinating the session

B.  The FCC

C.  The administering VEs

D.  The VE session manager

E1F15 (B) [97.509(c)]

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's 

instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

A.  Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in 

termination of the examination

B.  Immediately terminate the candidate's examination

C.  Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

D.  Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session

E1F16 (A) [97.509(k)]

What special procedures must a VE team follow for an examinee with a physical 

disability?

A.  A special procedure that accommodates the disability

B.  A special procedure specified by the coordinating VEC

C.  A special procedure specified by a physician

D.  None; the VE team does not have to provide special procedures

E1F17 (A) [97.509(d)]

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

A.  The VE's close relatives as listed in the FCC rules

B.  Acquaintances of the VE

C.  Friends of the VE

D.  There are no restrictions as to whom a VE may administer an examination

E1F18 (A) [97.509(e)]

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an 

examination?

A.  Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of 

the VE's amateur operator license grant

B.  A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

C.  A sentence of up to one year in prison

D.  All of these choices are correct

E1F19 (C) [97.509(h)]

What must the VE team do with your test papers when you have finished this 

examination?

A.  The VE team must collect them for grading at a later date

B.  The VE team must collect and send them to the coordinating VEC for grading

C.  The VE team must collect and grade them immediately

D.  The VE team must collect and send them to the FCC for grading

E1F20 (D) [97.519(b)]

What action must the coordinating VEC complete within 10 days of collecting the 

information from an examination session?

A.  Screen collected information

B.  Resolve all discrepancies and verify that the VEs' certifications are 

properly completed

C.  For qualified examinees, forward electronically all required data to the FCC

D.  All of these choices are correct

E1F21 (D) [97.509(i)]

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all 

examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

A.  Photocopy all examination documents and forwards them to the FCC for 

processing

B.  Notify the FCC that the examinee is eligible for a license grant

C.  Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license

D.  Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant 

and that they have complied with the VE requirements

E1F22 (A) [97.509(j)]

What must the VE team do if the examinee does not score a passing grade on the 

examination?

A.  Return the application document to the examinee and inform the examinee of 

the grade

B.  Return the application document to the examinee

C.  Inform the examinee that he or she did not pass

D.  Explain how the incorrect questions should have been answered

E1F23 (A) [97.519(d)(3)]

What are the consequences of failing to appear for readministration of an 

examination when so directed by the FCC?

A. The licensee's license will be cancelled and a new license will be issued 

that is consistent with examination elements not invalidated

B.  The licensee must pay a monetary fine

C.  The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur 

operator license grant

D.  The person may be sentenced to incarceration

E1F24 (A) [97.527]

What are the types of out-of-pocket expenses for which the FCC rules authorize a 

VE and VEC to accept reimbursement?

A.  Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an 

amateur radio license

B.  Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course

C.  None; a VE must never accept any type of reimbursement

D.  Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training 

materials

E1F25 (A) [97.509(e), 97.527]

How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, 

administering and coordinating an examination?

A.  Actual out-of-pocket expenses

B.  Up to the national minimum hourly wage times the number of hours spent 

providing the services

C.  Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually

D.  As much as the examinee is willing to donate

E1F26 (C) [97.505(a)(6)]

What amateur operator license examination credit must be given for a valid 

Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)?

A.  Only the written elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed with in the 

previous 365 days

B.  Only the telegraphy elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed within 

the previous 365 days

C.  Each element the CSCE indicates the examinee passed within the previous 365 

days

D.  None

E1F27 (C) [97.301(e)]

For what period of time does a Technician class licensee, who has just been 

issued a CSCE for having passed a 5 WPM Morse code examination, have authority 

to operate on the Novice/Technician HF subbands?

A.  365 days from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE

B.  1 year from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE

C.  Indefinitely, so long as the Technician license remains valid

D.  5 years plus a 5-year grace period from the examination date as indicated on 

the CSCE

E1F28 (A) [97.505(a)(6)]

What period of time does a Technician class licensee, who has just been issued a 

CSCE for having passed a 5 WPM Morse code examination, have in order to use this 

credit toward a license upgrade?

A.  365 days from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE

B.  15 months from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE

C.  There is no time limit, so long as the Technician license remains valid

D.  5 years plus a 5-year grace period from the examination date as indicated on 

the CSCE

E1G Certification of external RF power amplifiers and external RF power 

amplifier kits; Line A; National Radio Quiet Zone; business communications; 

definition and operation of spread spectrum; auxiliary station operation

E1G01 (B) [97.315(c)]

What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as 

certificated for use in the amateur service?

A.  An RF amplifier of that model may be used in any radio service

B.  That particular RF amplifier model may be marketed for use in the amateur 

service

C.  All similar models of RF amplifiers produced by other manufacturers may be 

marketed

D.  All models of RF amplifiers produced by that manufacturer may be marketed

E1G02 (B)[97.317(a)(3)]

Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external 

RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of Certification?

A.  It must have a time-delay to prevent it from operating continuously for more 

than ten minutes

B.  It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when driven with at least 

50W mean RF power (unless a higher drive level is specified)

C.  It must not be capable of modification without voiding the warranty

D.  It must exhibit no more than 6dB of gain over its entire operating range

E1G03 (A) [97.315(b)(5)]

Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF power amplifier 

capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

A.  It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to 

another amateur operator for use at that operator's station

B.  The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

C.  It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require 

certification of RF power amplifiers

D.  It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was 

certificated by that country's government

E1G04 (A) [97.3(a)(32)]

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes Line A?

A.  A line roughly parallel to, and south of, the US-Canadian border

B.  A line roughly parallel to, and west of, the US Atlantic coastline

C.  A line roughly parallel to, and north of, the US-Mexican border and Gulf 

coastline

D.  A line roughly parallel to, and east of, the US Pacific coastline

E1G05 (D) [97.303(f)(1)]

Amateur stations may not transmit in which frequency segment if they are located 

north of Line A?

A.  21.225-21.300 MHz

B.  53-54 MHz

C.  222-223 MHz

D.  420-430 MHz

E1G06 (C) [97.3 (a)(32)]

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

A.  An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope

B.  An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area

C.  An Area in Maryland, West Virginia and Virginia surrounding the National 

Radio Astronomy Observatory

D.  An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E1G07 (A) [97.203(e)]

What type of automatically controlled amateur station must not be established in 

the National Radio Quiet Zone before the licensee gives written notification to 

the National Radio Astronomy Observatory?

A.  Beacon station

B.  Auxiliary station

C.  Repeater station

D.  Earth station

E1G08 (D) [97.113(a)(2)]

When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing 

communication services to another party?

A.  When the repeater is operating under portable power

B.  When the repeater is operating under local control

C.  During Red Cross or other emergency service drills

D.  Under no circumstances

E1G09 (D) [97.113(a)(3)]

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

A.  When the total money involved does not exceed $25

B.  When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government 

agency

C.  When transmitting international third-party communications

D.  When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in 

the communications

E1G10 (A) [97.113]

Which of the following types of amateur operator-to-amateur operator 

communication are prohibited?

A.  Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as 

otherwise provided in the rules

B.  Communication that has a political content

C.  Communication that has a religious content

D.  Communication in a language other English

E1G11 (C) [97.3(c)(8)]

What is the term for emissions using bandwidth-expansion modulation?

A.  RTTY

B.  Image

C.  Spread spectrum

D.  Pulse

E1G12 (D) [97.311(a)]

FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to 

communicate under which of the following conditions?

A.  When the other station is in an area regulated by the FCC

B.  When the other station is in a country permitting SS communications

C.  When the transmission is not used to obscure the meaning of any 

communication

D.  All of these choices are correct

E1G13 (C) [97.311(d)]

Under any circumstance, what is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur 

station transmitting emission type SS communications?

A.  1 W

B.  1.5 W

C.  100 W

D.  1.5 kW

E1G14 (D) [97.109(c)]

What of the following is a use for an auxiliary station?

A.  To provide a point-to-point communications uplink between a control point 

and its associated remotely controlled station

B.  To provide a point-to-point communications downlink between a remotely 

controlled station and its control point

C.  To provide a point-to-point control link between a control point and its 

associated remotely controlled station

D.  All of these choices are correct

SUBELEMENT E2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups]

E2A  Amateur Satellites: orbital mechanics; frequencies available for satellite 

operation; satellite hardware; satellite operations

E2A01 (C) 

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

A.  From west to east

B.  From east to west

C.  From south to north

D.  From north to south

E2A02 (A)

What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

A.  From north to south

B.  From west to east

C.  From east to west

D.  From south to north

E2A03 (C) 

What is the period of an amateur satellite?

A.  The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

B.  The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

C.  The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit

D.  The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2A04 (D)

What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode V/H in 

amateur satellite operations?

A.  Satellite receiving on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz and 

retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz

B.  Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz

C.  Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in 

the range of 21 to 30 MHz

D.  Satellite receiving on 144 to 148 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in 

the range of 21 to 30 MHz

E2A05 (B)

What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode U/V in 

amateur satellite operations?

A.  Satellite receiving on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz and 

retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz

B.  Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on  144 to 148 MHz

C.  Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in 

the range of 21 to 30 MHz

D.  Satellite receiving on 144 to 148 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in 

the range of 21 to 30 MHz

E2A06 (C) 

What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode V/U in 

amateur satellite operations?

A.  Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz

B.  Satellite receiving on 144 to 148 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in 

the range of 21 to 30 MHz

C.  Satellite receiving on 144 to 148 MHz and retransmitting on 435 to 438 MHz

D.  Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and transmitting on 21 to 30 MHz

E2A07 (D)

What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode L/U in 

amateur satellite operations?

A.  Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 21 to 30 MHz

B.  Satellite receiving on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz and 

retransmitting on 435 to 438  MHz

C.  Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 1.26 to 1.27 GHz

D.  Satellite receiving on 1.26 to 1.27 GHz and retransmitting on 435 to 438 MHz

E2A08 (B)

What is a linear transponder?

A.  A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals

B.  A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a certain 

passband

C.  An amplifier that varies its output linearly in response to input signals

D.  A device that responds to satellite telecommands and is used to activate a 

linear sequence of events

E2A09 (D)

What is the name of the effect that causes the downlink frequency of a satellite 

to vary by several kHz during a low-earth orbit?

A.  The Kepler effect

B.  The Bernoulli effect

C.  The Einstein effect

D.  The Doppler effect

E2A10 (A)

Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a fairly rapid 

pulsed fading effect?

A.  Because the satellite is rotating

B.  Because of ionospheric absorption

C.  Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude

D.  Because of the Doppler effect

E2A11 (B)

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and 

Faraday rotation?

A.  A nonpolarized antenna

B.  A circularly polarized antenna

C.  An isotropic antenna

D.  A log-periodic dipole array

E2A12 (D)

How may the location of a satellite at a given time be predicted?

A.  By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

B.  By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

C.  By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

D.  By means of the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite

E2B  Television: fast scan television (FSTV) standards; slow scan television 

(SSTV) standards; facsimile (fax) communications

E2B01 (A)

How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television 

system?

A.  30

B.  60

C.  90

D.  120

E2B02 (C) 

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame?

A.  30

B.  60

C.  525

D.  1050

E2B03 (D)

How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television 

system?

A.  By scanning the field from top to bottom

B.  By scanning the field from bottom to top

C.  By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in the next

D.  By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the 

next

E2B04 (B)

What is blanking in a video signal?

A.  Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses

B.  Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left and 

from bottom to top

C.  Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission

D.  Transmitting a black and white test pattern

E2B05 (D)

What is the bandwidth of a vestigial sideband AM fast-scan television 

transmission?

A.  3 kHz

B.  10 kHz

C.  25 kHz

D.  6 MHz

E2B06 (C) 

What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black in amateur fast scan 

television?

A.  0%

B.  12.5%

C.  70%

D.  100%

E2B07 (C) 

What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking in amateur fast 

scan television?

A.  0%

B.  12.5%

C.  75%

D.  100%

E2B08 (A)

Which of the following is NOT a common method of transmitting accompanying audio 

with amateur fast-scan television?

A.  Amplitude modulation of the video carrier

B.  Frequency-modulated sub-carrier

C.  A separate VHF or UHF audio link

D.  Frequency modulation of the video carrier

E2B09 (D)

What is facsimile?

A.  The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when 

printed

B.  The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television

C.  The transmission of video by amateur television

D.  The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper

E2B10 (A)

What is the modern standard scan rate for a fax image transmitted by an amateur 

station?

A.  240 lines per minute

B.  50 lines per minute

C.  150 lines per second

D.  60 lines per second

E2B11 (B)

What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a fax picture 

transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm?

A.  6 minutes

B.  3.3 minutes

C.  6 seconds

D.  1/60 second

E2B12 (D)

What information is sent by slow-scan television transmissions?

A.  Baudot or ASCII characters that form a picture when printed

B.  Pictures for permanent display on paper

C.  Moving pictures

D.  Still pictures

E2B13 (C) 

How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color 

television picture?

A.  30 to 60

B.  60 or 100

C.  128 or 256

D.  180 or 360

E2B14 (C) 

What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television 

picture?

A.  2300 Hz

B.  2000 Hz

C.  1500 Hz

D.  120 Hz

E2B15 (D)

What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television 

picture?

A.  120 Hz

B.  1500 Hz

C.  2000 Hz

D.  2300 Hz

E2B16 (B)

What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white in an amateur fast-

scan television transmission?

A.  0%

B.  12.5%

C.  70%

D.  100%

E2B17 (A)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated 

Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television?

A.  Immunity from fading due to limiting

B.  Poor weak signal performance

C.  Greater signal bandwidth

D.  Greater complexity of receiving equipment

E2B18 (B)

What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?

A.  600 Hz

B.  2 kHz

C.  2 MHz

D.  6 MHz

E2B19 (D)

Which of the following systems is used to transmit high-quality still images by 

radio?

A.  AMTOR

B.  Baudot RTTY

C.  AMTEX

D.  Facsimile

E2B20 (C) 

What special restrictions are imposed on fax transmissions?

A.  None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies

B.  They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz

C.  They are allowed in phone band segments if their bandwidth is no greater 

than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type

D.  They are not permitted above 54 MHz

E2C  Contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; automatic HF 

forwarding; selecting your operating frequency

E2C01 (A)

When operating during a contest, which of these standards should you generally 

follow?

A.  Always listen before transmitting, be courteous and do not cause harmful 

interference to other communications

B.  Always reply to other stations calling CQ at least as many times as you call 

CQ

C.  When initiating a contact, always reply with the call sign of the station 

you are calling followed by your own call sign

D.  Always include your signal report, name and transmitter power output in any 

exchange with another station

E2C02 (B)

What is one of the main purposes for holding on-the-air operating contests?

A.  To test the dollar-to-feature value of station equipment during difficult 

operating circumstances

B.  To enhance the communicating and operating skills of amateur operators in 

readiness for an emergency

C.  To measure the ionospheres capacity for refracting RF signals under varying 

conditions

D.  To demonstrate to the FCC that amateur station operation is possible during 

difficult operating circumstances

E2C03 (C) 

Which of the following is typical of operations during an international amateur 

DX contest?

A.  Calling CQ is always done on an odd minute and listening is always done on 

an even minute

B.  Contacting a DX station is best accomplished when the WWV K index is above a 

reading of 8

C.  Some DX operators use split frequency operations (transmitting on a 

frequency different from the receiving frequency)

D.  DX contacts during the day are never possible because of known band 

attenuation from the sun

E2C04 (D)

If a DX station asks for your grid square locator, what should be your reply?

A.  The square of the power fed to the grid of your final amplifier and your 

current city, state and country

B.  The DX station's call sign followed by your call sign and your RST signal 

report

C.  The subsection of the IARU region in which you are located based upon 

dividing the entire region into a grid of squares 10 km wide

D.  Your geographic Maidenhead grid location (e.g., FN31AA) based on your 

current latitude and longitude

E2C05 (A)

What does a Maidenhead gridsquare refer to?

A.  A two-degree longitude by one-degree latitude square, as part of a world 

wide numbering system

B.  A one-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, beginning at the South 

Pole

C.  An antenna made of wire grid used to amplify low-angle incoming signals 

while reducing high-angle incoming signals

D.  An antenna consisting of a screen or grid positioned directly beneath the 

radiating element

E2C06 (C) 

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to find the 

highest level of contest activity?

A.  At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

B.  In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency

C.  In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the 

calling frequency

D.  In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling 

frequency

E2C07 (C) 

If you are in the US calling a station in Texas on a frequency of 1832 kHz and a 

station replies that you are in the window, what does this mean?

A.  You are operating out of the band privileges of your license

B.  You are calling at the wrong time of day to be within the window of 

frequencies that can be received in Texas at that time

C.  You are transmitting in a frequency segment that is reserved for 

international DX contacts by gentlemen's agreement

D.  Your modulation has reached an undesirable level and you are interfering 

with another contact

E2C08 (A)

Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant to interference?

A.  Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the 

receiver

B.  The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from 

being easily overpowered

C.  The receiver is always equipped with a special digital signal processor 

(DSP) interference filter

D.  If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter 

to change frequencies

E2C09 (D)

How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work?

A.  If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter 

to change frequencies

B.  If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter 

to wait until the frequency is clear

C.  A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF 

carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

D.  The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to 

a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

E2C10 (A)

While participating in an HF contest, how should you attempt to contact a 

station calling CQ and stating that he is listening on another specific 

frequency?

A.  By sending your full call sign on the listening frequency specified

B.  By sending only the suffix of your call sign on the listening Frequency

C.  By sending your full call sign on the frequency on which you heard the 

station calling CQ

D.  By sending only the suffix of your call sign on the frequency on which you 

heard the station calling CQ

E2C11 (A)

When operating SSB in a VHF contest, how should your attempt to contact a 

station calling CQ while a pileup of other stations are also trying to contact 

the same station?

A.  By sending your full call sign after the distant station transmits QRZ

B.  By sending only the last letters of your call sign after the distant station 

transmits QRZ

C.  By sending your full call sign and grid square as soon as you hear the 

distant station transmit QRZ

D.  By sending the call sign of the distant station three times, the words "this 

is", then your call sign three times

E2C12 (B)

In North America during low sunspot activity, signals from Europe become weak 

and fluttery across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what 

might help to contact other European DX stations?

A.  Switch to a higher frequency HF band, because the MUF has increased

B.  Switch to a lower frequency HF band because the MUF has decreased

C.  Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass

D.  Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band

E2D  Operating VHF / UHF digital modes: packet clusters; digital bulletin 

boards; Automatic Position Reporting System (APRS)

E2D01 (B)

What does CMD: mean when it is displayed on the video monitor of a packet 

station?

A.  The TNC is ready to exit the packet terminal program

B.  The TNC is in command mode, ready to receive instructions from the keyboard

C.  The TNC will exit to the command mode on the next keystroke

D.  The TNC is in KISS mode running TCP/IP, ready for the next command

E2D02 (A)

What is a Packet Cluster Bulletin Board?

A.  A packet bulletin board devoted primarily to serving a special interest 

group

B.  A group of general-purpose packet bulletin boards linked together in a 

cluster

C.  A special interest cluster of packet bulletin boards devoted entirely to 

packet radio computer communications

D.  A special interest telephone/modem bulletin board devoted to amateur DX 

operations

E2D03 (C) 

In comparing HF and 2-meter packet Operations, which of the following is NOT 

true?

A.  HF packet typically uses an FSK signal with a data rate of 300 bauds; 2-

meter packet uses an AFSK signal with a data rate of 1200 bauds

B.  HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use the same code for information 

exchange

C.  HF packet is limited to Amateur Extra class amateur licensees; 2-meter 

packet is open to all but Novice Class amateur licensees

D.  HF packet operations are limited to CW/Data-only band segments; 2-meter 

packet is allowed wherever FM operations are allowed

E2D04 (C) 

What is the purpose of a digital store and forward on an Amateur satellite?

A.  To stockpile packet TNCs and other digital hardware to be distributed to 

RACES operators in the event of an emergency

B.  To relay messages across the country via a network of HF digital stations

C.  To store messages in an amateur satellite for later download by other 

stations

D.  To store messages in a packet digipeater for relay via the Internet

E2D05 (B)

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth orbiting digital 

satellites to relay messages around the world?

A.  Digipeating

B.  Store and forward

C.  Multi-satellite relaying

D.  Node hopping

E2D06 (B)

What is the common 2-meter APRS frequency?

A.  144.20 MHz

B.  144.39 MHz

C.  145.02 MHz

D.  146.52 MHz

E2D07 (A)

Which of the following digital protocols does APRS use?

A.  AX.25

B.  802.11

C.  PACTOR

D.  AMTOR

E2D08 (D)

Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon 

data?

A.  Connect frames

B.  Disconnect frames

C.  Acknowledgement frames

D.  Unnumbered Information frames

E2D09 (D)

Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications 

modes has the fastest data throughput?

A.  AMTOR

B.  170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

C.  PSK31

D.  300-baud packet

E2D10 (C) 

How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications 

activity, such as a walk-a-thon?

A.  An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically 

transmit medical data to the nearest hospital

B.  APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the 

participant numbers and time as they pass the check points

C.  An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to 

show the station's position along the course route

D.  All of these choices are correct

E2D11 (D)

Which of the following data sources are needed to accurately transmit your 

geographical location over the APRS network?

A.  The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a Global Positioning System (GPS) 

satellite receiver

B.  The latitude and longitude of your location, preferably in degrees, minutes 

and seconds, entered into the APRS computer software

C.  The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a LORAN navigation system

D.  All of these choices are correct

E2E  Operating HF digital modes

E2E01 (B)

What is the most common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz?

A.  DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

B.  FSK (frequency-shift keying) of an RF carrier

C.  AFSK (audio frequency-shift keying) of an FM signal

D.  Key-operated on/off switching of an RF carrier

E2E02 (A)

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to AMTOR operation?

A.  Forward Error Correction

B.  First Error Correction

C.  Fatal Error Correction

D.  Final Error Correction

E2E03 (C) 

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

A.  By transmitting blocks of 3 data characters from the sending station to the 

receiving station, which the receiving station acknowledges

B.  By transmitting a special FEC algorithm which the receiving station uses for 

data validation

C.  By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct 

transmission errors

D.  By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a 

predefined algorithm

E2E04 (A)

If an oscilloscope is connected to a TNC or terminal unit and is displaying two 

crossed ellipses, one of which suddenly disappears, what would this indicate 

about the observed signal?

A.  The phenomenon known as selective fading has occurred

B.  One of the signal filters has saturated

C.  The receiver should be retuned, as it has probably moved at least 5 kHz from 

the desired receive frequency

D.  The mark and space signal have been inverted and the receiving equipment has 

not yet responded to the change

E2E05 (D)

What is the name for a bulletin transmission system that includes a special 

header to allow receiving stations to determine if the bulletin has been 

previously received?

A.  ARQ mode A

B.  FEC mode B

C.  AMTOR

D.  AMTEX

E2E06 (C) 

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?

A.  48 bauds

B.  110 bauds

C.  300 bauds

D.  1200 bauds

E2E07 (B)

What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

A.  31 Hz

B.  316 Hz

C.  550 Hz

D.  2 kHz

E2E08 (B)

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

A.  Hellschreiber

B.  PACTOR

C.  RTTY

D.  AMTOR

E2E09 (A)

Which of the following HF digital modes does NOT include error detection and 

correction?

A.  PSK31

B.  PACTOR

C.  CLOVER

D.  G-TOR

E2E10 (C) 

Which of the following HF digital modes use Reed-Solomon coding?

A.  AMTOR

B.  RTTY

C.  PSK31

D.  CLOVER

E2E11 (D)

What is the Baudot code?

A.  A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data systems 

using seven data bits

B.  A binary code consisting of eight data bits

C.  An alternate name for Morse code

D.  The International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2 (ITA2) which uses five data 

bits

E2E12 (C) 

Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

A.  AMTOR

B.  170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

C.  PSK31

D.  300-baud packet

SUBELEMENT E3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]

E3A  Earth-Moon-Earth (EME or moonbounce) communications; meteor scatter

E3A01 (D)

What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by moonbounce?

A.  500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee

B.  2000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee

C.  5000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee

D.  Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window

E3A02 (B)

What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal?

A.  A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

B.  A fluttery irregular fading

C.  A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises

D.  The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted 

signal

E3A03 (A)

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in 

the least path loss?

A.  When the moon is at perigee

B.  When the moon is full

C.  When the moon is at apogee

D.  When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3A04 (D)

What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?

A.  Equipment with very low power output

B.  Equipment with very low dynamic range

C.  Equipment with very low gain

D.  Equipment with very low noise figures

E3A05 (A)

What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when 

attempting an earth-moon-earth contact?

A.  Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and 

then receives for the following two minutes

B.  One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then 

receives for the following one minute

C.  Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 

2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes

D.  Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then 

receives for the following five minutes

E3A06 (C) 

What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when 

attempting an EME contact?

A.  Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and 

then receives for the following two minutes

B.  One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then 

receives for the following one minute

C.  Two and one half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 

2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes

D.  Five minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then 

receives for the following five minutes

E3A07 (B)

What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 2-meter 

band?

A.  144.000 - 144.001 MHz

B.  144.000 - 144.100 MHz

C.  144.100 - 144.300 MHz

D.  145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3A08 (D)

What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 70-cm 

band?

A.  430.000 - 430.150 MHz

B.  430.100 - 431.100 MHz

C.  431.100 - 431.200 MHz

D.  432.000 - 432.100 MHz

E3A09 (A)

When a meteor strikes the earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free 

electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

A.  The E layer

B.  The F1 layer

C.  The F2 layer

D.  The D layer

E3A10 (C) 

Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

A.  1.8 - 1.9 MHz

B.  10 - 14 MHz

C.  28 - 148 MHz

D.  220 - 450 MHz

E3A11 (C) 

What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when 

attempting a meteor-scatter contact?

A.  Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and 

then receives for the following two minutes

B.  One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then 

receives for the following one minute

C.  15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds and then 

receives for the following 15 seconds

D.  30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds and then 

receives for the following 30 seconds

E3B  Transequatorial; long path; gray line

E3B01 (A)

What is transequatorial propagation?

A.  Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and 

south of the magnetic equator

B.  Propagation between two points at approximately the same latitude on the 

magnetic equator

C.  Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic 

equator

D.  Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3B02 (C) 

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial 

propagation?

A.  1000 miles

B.  2500 miles

C.  5000 miles

D.  7500 miles

E3B03 (C) 

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

A.  Morning

B.  Noon

C.  Afternoon or early evening

D.  Late at night

E3B04 (A)

What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be 

pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest 

signals?

A.  Long-path

B.  Sporadic-E

C.  Transequatorial

D.  Auroral

E3B05 (C) 

On what amateur bands can long-path propagation provide signal enhancement?

A.  160 to 40 meters

B.  30 to 10 meters

C.  160 to 10 meters

D.  6 meters to 2 meters

E3B06 (B)

What amateur band consistently yields long-path enhancement using a modest 

antenna of relatively high gain?

A.  80 meters

B.  20 meters

C.  10 meters

D.  6 meters

E3B07 (D)

What is the typical reason for hearing an echo on the received signal of a 

station in Europe while directing your HF antenna toward the station?

A.  The station's transmitter has poor frequency stability

B.  The station's transmitter is producing spurious emissions

C.  Auroral conditions are causing a direct and a long-path reflected signal to 

be received

D.  There are two signals being received, one from the most direct path and one 

from long-path propagation

E3B08 (D)

What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the 

terminator between daylight and darkness?

A.  Transequatorial

B.  Sporadic-E

C.  Long-path

D.  Gray-line

E3B09 (A)

At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent?

A.  Twilight, at sunrise and sunset

B.  When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station

C.  When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path 

between the two stations

D.  When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

E3B10 (B)

What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

A.  At midday the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the ionosphere 

causing increased refraction of radio waves

B.  At twilight solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization is 

not weakened enough to reduce the MUF

C.  At darkness solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization 

remains steady

D.  At mid afternoon the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio wave 

refraction and the MUF

E3B11 (C) 

What communications are possible during gray-line propagation?

A.  Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band

B.  Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands

C.  Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands

D.  Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

E3C  Auroral propagation; selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle 

over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects on propagation

E3C01 (D)

What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications?

A.  The readability of SSB signals increases

B.  FM communications are clearer

C.  CW signals have a clearer tone

D.  CW signals have a fluttery tone

E3C02 (C) 

What is the cause of auroral activity?

A.  A high sunspot level

B.  A low sunspot level

C.  The emission of charged particles from the sun

D.  Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

E3C03 (D)

Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?

A.  At F-region height

B.  In the equatorial band

C.  At D-region height

D.  At E-region height

E3C04 (A)

Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation?

A.  CW

B.  SSB

C.  FM

D.  RTTY

E3C05 (B)

What causes selective fading?

A.  Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station

B.  Phase differences between radio-wave components of the same transmission, as 

experienced at the receiving station

C.  Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station 

ordinarily occurring shortly after either sunrise or sunset

D.  Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations

E3C06 (A)

How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading?

A.  It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths

B.  It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths

C.  It is the same for both narrow and wide bandwidths

D.  The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect

E3C07 (A)

How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the 

geometric horizon?

A.  By approximately 15% of the distance

B.  By approximately twice the distance

C.  By approximately one-half the distance

D.  By approximately four times the distance

E3C08 (B)

For a 3-element beam antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the 

main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat

ground?

A.  It increases with increasing height

B.  It decreases with increasing height

C.  It does not vary with height

D.  It depends on E-region height, not antenna height

E3C09 (B)

What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some 

distance within the F2 region?

A.  Oblique-angle ray

B.  Pedersen ray

C.  Ordinary ray

D.  Heaviside ray

E3C10 (C) 

What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 500 miles?

A.  D-region absorption

B.  Faraday rotation

C.  Tropospheric ducting

D.  Moonbounce

E3C11 (B)

For a 3-element beam antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the 

main lobe takeoff angle vary with the downward slope of the ground (moving away 

from the antenna)?

A.  It increases as the slope gets steeper

B.  It decreases as the slope gets steeper

C.  It does not depend on the ground slope

D.  It depends of the F-region height

E3C12 (B)

In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be 

pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?

A.  South

B.  North

C.  East

D.  West

E3C13 (B)

As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground wave propagation 

change?

A.  It increases

B.  It decreases

C.  It stays the same

D.  Radio waves don't propagate along the earth's surface

E3C14 (A)

What typical propagation does ground-wave propagation have?

A.  Vertical

B.  Horizontal

C.  Circular

D.  Elliptical

E3C15 (D)

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

A.  E-region skip

B.  D-region skip

C.  Auroral skip

D.  Radio waves may be bent

SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES  [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]

E4A Test equipment: spectrum analyzers (interpreting spectrum analyzer displays; 

transmitter output spectrum), logic probes (indications of high and low states 

in digital circuits; indications of pulse conditions in digital circuits)

E4A01 (C) 

How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain 

oscilloscope?

A.  A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope 

displays electrical signals

B.  A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the time domain; an oscilloscope 

displays signals in the frequency domain

C.  A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an 

oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain

D.  A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays 

audio frequencies

E4A02 (D)

What parameter does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?

A.  Amplitude

B.  Voltage

C.  Resonance

D.  Frequency

E4A03 (A)

What parameter does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?

A.  Amplitude

B.  Duration

C.  Frequency

D.  Time

E4A04 (A)

Which test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio 

transmitter?

A.  A spectrum analyzer

B.  A wattmeter

C.  A logic analyzer

D.  A time-domain reflectometer

E4A05 (B)

Which test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products in 

an SSB transmission?

A.  A wattmeter

B.  A spectrum analyzer

C.  A logic analyzer

D.  A time-domain reflectometer

E4A06 (C) 

Which of the following is NOT something that could be determined with a spectrum 

analyzer?

A.  The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter 

duplexer

B.  Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency

C.  The speed at which a transceiver switches from transmit to receive when 

being used for packet radio

D.  The spectral output of a transmitter

E4A07 (B)

What is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the output from a 

VHF transmitter?

A.  There are no advantages; an inexpensive oscilloscope can display the same 

information

B.  It displays all frequency components of the transmitted signal

C.  It displays a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

D.  It costs much less than any other instrumentation useful for such 

measurements

E4A08 (D)

What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring the 

status of a logic circuit?

A.  It has many more leads to connect to the circuit than a voltmeter

B.  It can be used to test analog and digital circuits

C.  It can read logic circuit voltage more accurately than a voltmeter

D.  It is smaller and shows a simplified readout

E4A09 (C) 

Which test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low digital voltage 

states?

A.  An ohmmeter

B.  An electroscope

C.  A logic probe

D.  A Wheatstone bridge

E4A10 (D)

What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit?

A.  A short-circuit fault

B.  An open-circuit fault

C.  The resistance between logic modules

D.  The high and low logic states

E4A11 (A)

Which of the following test instruments can be used to indicate pulse conditions 

in a digital logic circuit?

A.  A logic probe

B.  An ohmmeter

C.  An electroscope

D.  A Wheatstone bridge

E4A12 (B)

Which of the following procedures should you follow when connecting a spectrum 

analyzer to a transmitter output?

A.  Use high quality coaxial lines

B.  Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer

C.  Use a signal divider

D.  Match the antenna to the load

E4B Frequency measurement devices (i.e., frequency counter, oscilloscope 

Lissajous figures, dip meter); meter performance limitations; oscilloscope 

performance limitations; frequency counter performance limitations

E4B01 (B)

What is a frequency standard?

A.  A frequency chosen by a net control operator for net operations

B.  A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency

C.  A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz

D.  A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies

E4B02 (B)

What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a frequency 

counter?

A.  Phase comparator slew rate, speed of the logic and time base stability

B.  Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability

C.  Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base 

reactance

D.  Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and 

temperature coefficient of the logic

E4B03 (C) 

How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?

A.  By using slower digital logic

B.  By improving the accuracy of the frequency response

C.  By increasing the accuracy of the time base

D.  By using faster digital logic

E4B04 (C) 

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 

146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could 

differ from the reading?

A.  165.2 Hz

B.  14.652 kHz

C.  146.52 Hz

D.  1.4652 MHz

E4B05 (A)

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 

146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could 

differ from the reading?

A.  14.652 Hz

B.  0.1 MHz

C.  1.4652 Hz

D.  1.4652 kHz

E4B06 (D)

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 

Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the 

reading?

A.  146.52 Hz

B.  10 Hz

C.  146.52 kHz

D.  1465.20 Hz

E4B07 (D)

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 

432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could 

differ from the reading?

A.  43.21 MHz

B.  10 Hz

C.  1.0 MHz

D.  432.1 Hz

E4B08 (A)

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 

432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could 

differ from the reading?

A.  43.21 Hz

B.  0.1 MHz

C.  432.1 Hz

D.  0.2 MHz

E4B09 (C) 

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 432,100,000 

Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the 

reading?

A.  10 MHz

B.  10 Hz

C.  4321 Hz

D.  432.1 Hz

E4B10 (C) 

If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscope and a 150 

Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type of Lissajous figure will be 

displayed on the screen?

A.  A looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150 loops vertically

B.  A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high

C.  A looping pattern with 3 loops horizontally and 2 loops vertically

D.  An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high

E4B11 (C) 

What is a dip-meter?

A.  A field-strength meter

B.  An SWR meter

C.  A device consisting of a variable frequency LC oscillator and an indicator 

showing the metered feedback current

D.  A marker generator

E4B12 (D)

What does a dip-meter do?

A.  It accurately indicates signal strength

B.  It measures frequency accurately

C.  It measures transmitter output power accurately

D.  It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a nearby circuit

E4B13 (B)

How does a dip-meter function?

A.  Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize a detector coil

B.  Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current

C.  Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current

D.  Harmonics from an oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q

E4B14 (D)

What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station?

A.  To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of 

modulation

B.  To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation

C.  To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance

D.  To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned 

circuit resonant frequency

E4B15 (A)

For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with the LC circuit 

being checked?

A.  As loosely as possible

B.  As tightly as possible

C.  First loosely, then tightly

D.  With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked

E4B16 (A)

What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of an 

oscilloscope?

A.  Accuracy and linearity of the time base and the linearity and bandwidth of 

the deflection amplifiers

B.  Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage

C.  Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face voltage increments

D.  Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments

E4B17 (B)

What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with a tuned circuit 

being checked?

A.  Harmonics are generated

B.  A less accurate reading results

C.  Cross modulation occurs

D.  Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4B18 (B)

What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a 

D'Arsonval-type meter?

A.  Calibration, coil impedance and meter size

B.  Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance

C.  Coil impedance, electromagnetic voltage and movement mass

D.  Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current

E4B19 (D)

How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved?

A.  By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time base

B.  By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the vertical 

sweep rate

C.  By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier frequency 

response

D.  By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency 

response

E4C Receiver performance characteristics (i.e., phase noise, desensitization, 

capture effect, intercept point, noise floor, dynamic range {blocking and IMD}, 

image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio); intermodulation and cross-