Counter to some Amillenial doctrine: |
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Remember :Do not switch methods of Scripture interpretation ( literal as opposed to spiritual/symbolic ) part way through a passage that forms a homogeneous unit. I doubt that anyone would say that the following passage from Luke is not a single homogenous unit: Luk 1:26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth, Luk 1:27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary. Luk 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favored, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. Luk 1:29 And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be. Luk 1:30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favor with God. Luk 1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS. Luk 1:32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: Luk 1:33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob forever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end. The following were literally fulfilled: -Mary conceived -She brought forth a son -His name was called Jesus -He was great -He was called the Son of the Highest
Surely then Jesus must still literally occupy the earthly throne of David and reign over the house of Jacob? Mary could not have understood these points any other way! |
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