Essentials of Systems Analysis and Design, Page 1
The Systems Development Environment & the sources of Software
True-False Questions
1. Systems analysis is the first phase of the systems development life cycle.
False
2. The main goal of systems analysis and design is to improve organizational systems, typically through
applying software that can help employees accomplish key business tasks more easily and efficiently.
True
3. A boundary is the point of contact where a system meets its environment or where subsystems meet each other.
False interface
4. An interface separates a system from other systems.
False boundary
5. A system’s environment is everything outside a system’s boundary that influences the system.
True
6. Interfaces exist between subsystems.
Answer: True
7. A system’s capacity can be viewed as a system constraint.
Answer: True
8. Cohesion is the process of breaking down a system into its smaller components.
Answer: False decomposition
9. Coupling results in smaller and less complex systems that are easier to understand than larger, complicated systems.
Answer: False modularity
10. Decomposition allows the systems analyst to build different parts of the system at independent times and have the help of different analysts.
Answer: True
11. Coupling is a direct result of decomposition.
Answer: False Modularity
12. Modularity divides a system into chunks or modules of a relatively uniform size.
Answer: True
13. Cohesion is the extent to which subsystems depend on each other.
Answer: False Coupling
14. The major focus of management information systems (MIS) is capturing transaction data, which is then sent to a computerized database of all transactions.
Answer: False TPS
15. Transaction processing systems (TPS) take raw data available in a data warehouse and convert them into a meaningful aggregate form.
Answer: False MIS
16. A decision support system (DSS) uses knowledge gathered from experts to make recommendations to managers.
Answer: False ????????????????????????? why is it false
17. The systems development life cycle is a sequentially ordered set of phases.
Answer: False It is, but it is cyclical
18. Involving the user in analysis and design is a key advantage to the prototyping technique.
Answer: True
19. Joint Application Design (JAD) is a structured process in which users, managers, and analysts work together for several days in a series of intensive meetings to specify or review system requirements.
Answer: True
20. Enterprise-wide systems are large, complex systems that consist of a series of independent system modules.
Answer: True
Page 2 The Systems Development Environment & the source of software
21. Information technology services firms, packaged software providers, vendors of enterprise-wide solution software, open-source software, and in-house development are sources of software.
Answer: True
22. An enterprise resource planning system is one of the three information systems classes.
Answer: False TPS, MIS, DSS
Multiple-Choice Questions
23. The process of developing and maintaining an information system best describes:
a. joint application design. b. prototyping.
c. information systems analysis and design. d. information technology infrastructure development.
e. systems implementation.
Answer: c
24. An information system includes each of the following except:
a. application software. b. culture.
c. documentation and training materials. d. specific job roles associated with the overall system.
e. controls.
Answer: b
25. A group of interrelated procedures used for a business function, with an identifiable boundary, working together for some purpose, best defines:
a. environment. b. system component. c. constraint.
d. interface. e. system.
Answer: e
26. Which of the following is not a system characteristic?
a. Interface b. Boundary c. Input
d. Scope e. Output
Answer: d
27. Dependence of one part of the system on one or more other system parts best describes:
a. interrelated components. b. boundary. c. component.
d. dependency. e. cohesion.
Answer: a
28. The line that marks the inside and outside of the system that sets off the system from its environment, best defines:
a. delineation mark. b. boundary. c. scope.
d. interface. e. analysis area.
Answer: b
29. The overall goal or function of a system best defines:
a. purpose. b. goal. c. objective.
d. scope. e. mission.
Answer: a
30. The environment of a state university would not include:
a. prospective students. b. the legislature. c. the president’s office.
d. the news media. e. a foundation.
Answer: c
31. The point of contact where a system meets its environment or where subsystems meet each other best describes:
a. boundary points. b. interfaces. c. contact points.
d. merge points. e. forks.
Answer: b
32. The process of breaking the description of a system down into its smaller components best defines:
a. coupling. b. cohesion. c. decomposition.
d. modularity. e. scaling.
Answer: c
Essentials of Systems Analysis and Design, Page 3
33. Which of the following is a direct result of decomposition?
a. Coupling b. Open systems c. Cohesion
d. Modularity e. Interfaces
Answer: d
34. The extent to which subsystems depend on each other refers to:
a. modularity. b. coupling. c. decomposition.
d. dependence. e. cohesion.
Answer: b
35. Transaction processing systems:
a. automate the handling of data about business activities or transactions.
b. are designed to help organizational decision makers make decisions.
c. replicate the decision-making process rather than manipulate information.
d. take raw data that have been previously captured and convert them into a meaningful aggregated form that managers need to conduct their responsibilities.
e. provide general recommendations on how to fix, enhance, or replace a current system.
Answer: a
36. Management information systems:
a. automate the handling of data about business activities.
b. are designed to help organizational decision makers make decisions.
c. replicate the decision-making process rather than manipulate information.
d. take raw data that have been previously captured and convert them into a meaningful aggregated form that managers need to conduct their responsibilities.
e. provide general recommendations on how to fix, enhance, or replace a current system.
Answer: d
37. Decision support systems:
a. automate the handling of data about business activities.
b. are designed to help organizational decision makers make decisions.
c. replicate the decision-making process rather than manipulate information.
d. take raw data that have been previously captured and convert them into a meaningful aggregated form that managers need to conduct their responsibilities.
e. provide general recommendations on how to fix, enhance, or replace a current system.
Answer: b
38. Which of the following is an IS characteristic for a transaction processing system?
a. Often involves semistructured problems
b. Provides expert advice by asking users a sequence of questions dependent on prior answers
c. Has a high-volume, data capture focus
d. Draws on diverse yet predictable data resources to aggregate and summarize data
e. Has a need to access data at different levels of detail
Answer: c
39. Which of the following is an IS characteristic for a management information system?
a. Often involves semistructured problems and the need to access data at different levels of detail
b. Provides expert advice by asking users a sequence of questions dependent on prior answers
c. Has a high-volume, data capture focus
d. Draws on diverse yet predictable data resources to aggregate and summarize data
e. Has as its goal efficient data movement and interfacing different TPS
Answer: d
40. Which of the following is an IS characteristic for a decision support system?
a. Often involves semistructured problems and the need to access data at different levels of detail
b. Provides expert advice by asking users a sequence of questions dependent on prior answers
c. Has a high-volume, data capture focus
d. Draws on diverse yet predictable data resources to aggregate and summarize data
e. Has as its goal efficient data movement and interfacing different TPS
Answer: a
41. The need for a new or enhanced system is identified during:
a. systems planning and selection. b. systems coding. c. systems analysis.
d. systems design. e. systems implementation and operation.
Answer: a
Page 4 The Systems Development Environment & the source of software
42. In which SDLC phase is the information system coded, tested, and installed in the organization?
a. Systems planning and selection b. Systems replacement c. Systems analysis
d. Systems design e. Systems implementation and operation
Answer: e
43. Building a scaled-down version of the desired system best describes:
a. prototyping. b. Agile Methodologies. c. joint application design.
d. reengineering analysis. e. rapid application development.
Answer: a
Fill In the Blanks
44. Information systems analysis and design is the process of developing and maintaining an information system.
45. A system is a group of interrelated procedures used for a business function, with an identifiable boundary, working together for some purpose.
46. The line that marks the inside and outside of a system and that sets off one system from other systems in the organization is called a boundary.
47. The overall goal or function of a system is called its purpose.
48. A component is an irreducible part or aggregation of parts that makes up a system.
49. Interrelated components refers to a dependence of one part of the system on one or more other system parts.
50. Environment refers to everything external to a system that interacts with the system.
51. An interface is the point of contact where a system meets its environment or where subsystems meet each other.
52. A constraint is a limit to what a system can accomplish.
53. Decomposition is the process of breaking the description of a system down into small components.
54. Modularity is the process of dividing a system into chunks or modules of equal size.
55. Coupling is the extent to which subsystems depend on each other.
56. Cohesion is the extent to which a system or subsystem performs a single function.
57. The systems development life cycle is the series of steps used to mark the phases of development for an information system.
58. Systems planning and selection is the first phase of the SDLC, in which an organization’s total information system needs are analyzed and arranged, and in which a potential information systems project is identified and an argument for continuing or not continuing with the project is presented.
59. Systems analysis is the phase of the SDLC in which the current system is studied and alternative
replacement systems are proposed.
60. Systems design is the phase of the SDLC in which the system chosen for development in systems analysis is first described independently of any computer platform and is then transformed into technology-specific details from which all programming and system construction can be accomplished.
61. Prototyping refers to building a scaled-down version of the desired information system.
62. Joint Application Design is a structured process in which users, managers, and analysts work together for several days in a series of intensive meetings to specify or review system requirements.
Copyright © 2009 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall
1
Essentials of System Analysis and Design, 4e (Valacich)
Chapter 2 The Sources of Software
1. Outsourcing refers to turning over responsibility of some or all of an organization's
information systems applications and operations to an outside firm.
Answer: TRUE
2. Information technology services firms, packaged software providers, vendors of enterprisewide solution software, open-source software, and in-house development are sources of software.
Answer: TRUE
3. Using enterprise software solutions, a firm can integrate all parts of a business process in a
unified information system.
Answer: TRUE
4. One of the primary benefits of using an enterprise software solution is the short time period
required for implementation.
Answer: FALSE
single reposi-tory of data for all aspects of a business process and the flexibility of the modules. – think quality over speed
5. Third-party providers who run applications at remote sites and charge rent or a licensing fee to
the organization are called application service providers (ASPs).
Answer: TRUE
6. The practice of turning over responsibility of some or all of an organization's information
systems applications and operations to an outside firm is referred to as:
A) realignment. B) downsizing. C) outsourcing. D) time sharing. E) system reassignment and
deployment.
Answer: C
7. When developing information systems, an organization could use:
A) an information technology services firm. B) open-source software.
C) enterprise-wide solution software. D) in-house development. E) all of the above.
Answer: E
8. A system that integrates individual traditional business functions into a series of modules so
that a single transaction occurs seamlessly within a single information system rather than several
separate systems best describes:
A) enterprise resource planning (ERP). B) application service. C) storage area network.
D) packaged software. E) system integration software.
Answer: A
9. __________ is the practice of turning over responsibility of some or all of an organization's
information systems applications and operations to an outside firm.
Answer: Outsourcing
Chapter 3
Managing the Information Systems Project
True-False Questions
1. The project manager is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, and closing down the project.
Answer: True
2. Project planning is the first phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities.
Answer: False 1) Initiating 2) Planning 3) Executing 4) Closing Down
3. Establishing a relationship with a customer is a project initiation activity.
Answer: True Establishing X, Developing Charter
4. Project initiation is the second phase of the project management process, which focuses on defining clear, discrete activities and the work needed to complete each activity within a single project.
Answer: False Planning
5. A Network diagram depicts project tasks and their interrelationships.
Answer: True
6. A Baseline Project Plan is developed during the project execution phase.
Answer: False Planning
7. When executing the Baseline Project Plan, the analyst will initiate the execution of project activities, acquire and assign resources, orient and train new team members, keep the project on schedule, and assure the quality of project deliverables.
Answer: True
8. Critical path scheduling is a scheduling technique whose order and duration of a sequence of task activities directly affect the completion date of a project.
Answer: True
9. A major disadvantage of the Network diagram is its inability to represent completion times and show
interrelationships between activities.
Answer: False major advantage
10. An activity on the critical path will have a slack time of 1.
Answer: False Slack time of 0
Multiple-Choice Questions
11. Which of the following is not a project management phase?
a. Closing down the project b. Planning the project c. Executing the project
d. Initiating a project e. Implementing the project
Answer: e
12. A controlled process of initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project best defines:
a. systems development. b. project management. c. project development.
d. systems management. e. systems development technique.
Answer: b
13. The phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities best defines:
a. project initiation. b. scope development. c. project planning.
d. project assessment. e. project design.
Answer: a
14. Which of the following project management activities is associated with project initiation?
a. Establishing a relationship with the customer
b. Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
c. Estimating resources and creating a detailed resource plan
d. Identifying and assessing risks
e. Closing down the project
Answer: a
Chapter 2 Essentials of Systems Analysis and Design, Third Edition Page 25
15. Which of the following is not a project planning activity?
a. Setting a Baseline Project Plan
b. Identifying and assessing risk
c. Determining project standards and procedures
d. Establishing management procedures
e. Developing a project charter
Answer: d
16. Which of the following occurs during project execution?
a. Monitoring project progress against the Baseline Project Plan
b. Conducting post project reviews
c. Establishing the project initiation plan
d. Establishing the project workbook
e. Establishing the communication plan
Answer: a
17. The final phase of the project management process that focuses on bringing a project to an end is called:
a. project evaluation. b. project closedown. c. project initiation and planning.
d. project review. e. project implementation.
Answer: b
18. A critical path refers to:
a. a sequence of task activities whose order and durations indirectly affect the completion date of a project.
b. a sequence of task activities whose order and durations directly affect the completion date of a project.
c. a sequence of task activities whose order must be performed in parallel.
d. a sequence of task activities whose duration cannot last more than 40 percent of the time allotted to the project.
e. none of the above.
Answer: b
19. Optimistic time refers to:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion.
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
e. the average period of time for an activity to be completed.
Answer: b
20. Pessimistic time refers to:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion.
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
e. the average period of time for an activity to be completed.
Answer: a
21. Realistic time refers to:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion.
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
e. the average period of time for an activity to be completed.
Answer: c
22. The amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project refers to:
a. noncritical time. b. slack time. c. down time.
d. delay time. e. stop time.
Answer: b
Page 26 Managing the Information Systems Project
23. Slack time is equal to:
a. the difference between an activity’s latest and earliest expected completion time.
b. the latest expected completion time.
c. the difference between the start time and realistic time for each activity.
d. the sum of an activity’s latest and earliest expected completion time.
e. the difference between the optimistic time and pessimistic time for an activity.
Answer: a
Fill In the Blanks
24. Project management is a controlled process of initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project.
25. Project initiation is the first phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities.
26. A project charter is a short, high-level document prepared for both internal and external stakeholders to formally announce the establishment of the project and to briefly describe its objectives, key assumptions, and stakeholders.
27. Project closedown is the final phase of the project management process that focuses on ending the project.
28. Slack time is the amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project.
29. Critical path refers to the shortest time in which a project can be completed.
Chapter 4
Systems Planning and Selection
True-False Questions
1. The Project Charter reflects the best estimate of the project’s scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements, given the current understanding of the project.
Answer: False Baseline Project Plan
2. Economic feasibility is a process of identifying the financial benefits and costs associated with a development project.
Answer: True
3. Opening new markets and increasing sales opportunities is a tangible benefit.
Answer: True
4. Increased flexibility is an example of an intangible benefit.
Answer: False ??????????????????????????
5. Site preparation is an example of a one-time cost.
Answer: True
6. Variable costs are costs resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system.
Answer: False Recurring Cost
7. The time value of money (TVM) compares present cash outlays to future expected returns.
Answer: True
8. Because many projects may be competing for the same investment dollars and may have different useful life expectancies, all costs and benefits must be viewed in relation to their present rather than future value when comparing investment options.
Answer: True
9. The objective of return on investment (ROI) analysis is to discover at what point cumulative benefits equal costs.
Answer: False Breakeven Analysis
10. Most techniques for analyzing economic feasibility employ the time value of money concept.
Answer: True
Multiple-Choice Questions
11. The first phase of the systems development life cycle is:
a. systems planning and selection. b. systems study. c. systems analysis.
d. systems design. e. systems implementation and operation.
Answer: a
12. Potential development projects can be identified by:
a. a steering committee. b. top management. c. a senior IS manager.
d. user departments. e. all of the above.
Answer: e
13. A major outcome and deliverable from project initiation and planning that reflects the best estimate of the project’s scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements defines the:
a. Baseline Project Plan. b. Information Systems Plan. c. Mission Statement.
d. Resource Requirements Statement. e. Systems Service Request.
Answer: a
14. To identify the financial benefits and costs associated with the development project is the purpose of:
a. financial feasibility. b. technical feasibility. c. operational feasibility.
d. economic feasibility. e. schedule feasibility.
Answer: d
15. Tangible benefits would include:
a. improved organizational planning. b. ability to investigate more alternatives.
c. improved asset control. d. lower transaction costs. e. first to market.
Answer: d
Systems Planning and Selection
16. Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased flexibility are examples of:
a. intangible benefits. b. qualitative benefits. c. tangible benefits.
d. legal and contractual benefits. e. profitable benefits.
Answer: c
17. A savings of $5,000 resulting from data entry error reductions would most likely be classified as a(n):
a. intangible benefit. b. qualitative benefit. c. tangible benefit.
d. operational benefit. e. profitable benefit.
Answer: c
18. A benefit derived from the creation of an information system that can be measured in dollars and with certainty is a(n):
a. intangible benefit. b. qualitative benefit. c. tangible benefit.
d. operational benefit. e. profitable benefit.
Answer: c
19. The reduction of waste creation is an example of a(n):
a. intangible benefit. b. qualitative benefit. c. tangible benefit.
d. operational benefit. e. profitable benefit.
Answer: a ??????????????????
20. A cost associated with an information system that can be measured in dollars and with certainty best describes:
a. economic cost. b. tangible cost. c. intangible cost.
d. one-time cost. e. measurable cost.
Answer: b
21. Which of the following would be classified as a tangible cost?
a. Loss of customer goodwill b. Cost of hardware c. Employee morale
d. Operational inefficiency e. Not all customers use the Internet.
Answer: b
22. Which of the following would be classified as an intangible cost?
a. Hardware costs b. Labor costs c. Employee morale
d. Operational costs e. Internet service setup fee
Answer: c
23. A cost associated with project start-up and development or system start-up refers to a(n):
a. recurring cost. b. one-time cost. c. incremental cost.
d. infrequent cost. e. consumable cost.
Answer: b
24. A cost associated with an information system that cannot be easily measured in terms of dollars or with certainty refers to a(an):
a. economic cost. b. tangible cost. c. intangible cost.
d. one-time cost. e. nonconsumable cost.
Answer: c
25. A cost resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system best defines a(an):
a. recurring cost. b. one-time cost. c. incremental cost.
d. frequent cost. e. variable cost.
Answer: a
26. Application software maintenance, new software and hardware leases, and incremental communications are examples of:
a. recurring costs. b. one-time costs. c. incremental costs.
d. frequent costs. e. consumable costs.
Answer: a
27. The interest rate used to compute the present value of future cash flows refers to:
a. discount rate. b. investment rate. c. transfer rate.
d. future cash flow rate. e. valuation rate.
Answer: a
Chapter 3 Essentials of Systems Analysis and Design, Third Edition
28. The current value of a future cash flow is referred to as:
a. future value. b. present value. c. investment value.
d. discount rate. e.cash flow rate.
Answer: b
29. The analysis technique that uses a discount rate determined from the company’s cost of capital to establish the present value of a project is commonly called:
a. return on investment (ROI). b. break-even analysis (BEA). c. net present value (NPV).
d. future value (FV). e. Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).
Answer: c
30. The ratio of the net cash receipts of the project divided by the cash outlays of the project, enabling trade-off analysis to be made between competing projects, is often referred to as:
a. return on investment (ROI). b. break-even analysis (BEA). c. net present value (NPV).
d. future value (FV). e. Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).
Answer: a
31. The analysis technique that finds the amount of time required for the cumulative cash flow from a project to equal its initial and ongoing investment is referred to as:
a. return on investment (ROI). b. break-even analysis (BEA). c. net present value (NPV).
d. future value (FV). e. Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).
Answer: b
32. A document prepared for the customer during project initiation and planning that describes what the project will deliver and outlines generally at a high level all work required to complete the project is the:
a. Information Systems Plan. b. Project Scope Statement. c. Mission Statement.
d. Baseline Project Plan. e. Systems Service Request.
Answer: b
Fill In the Blanks
33. The Baseline Project Plan is the major outcome and deliverable from the project initiation and planning phase and contains an estimate of the project’s scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements.
34. Economic feasibility is the process of identifying the financial benefits and costs associated with a
development project.
35. A tangible benefit is a benefit derived from the creation of an information system that can be measured in dollars and with certainty.
36. An intangible benefit is a benefit derived from the creation of an information system that cannot be easily measured in dollars or with certainty.
37. A tangible cost is a cost associated with an information system that can be easily measured in dollars and with certainty.
38. An intangible cost is a cost associated with an information system that cannot be easily measured in terms of dollars or with certainty.
39. One-time costs are costs associated with project start-up and development, or system start-up.
40. Recurring costs are costs resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system.
41. The time value of money refers to the process of comparing present cash outlays to future expected returns.
42. The discount rate is the interest rate used to compute the present value of future cash flows.
43. Present value is the current value of a future cash flow.
44. Break-even analysis is a type of cost-benefit analysis to identify at what point (if ever) benefits equal costs.
Chapter 5:
Page 72
Determining System Requirements
True-False Questions
1. During requirements determination, information can be gathered from users of the current system, forms, reports, and procedures.
Answer: True
2. Assuming anything is possible and eliminating the infeasible describes the reframing characteristic that a systems analyst should exhibit during the requirements determination phase.
Answer: False
3. Joint Application Design and prototyping can help keep the analysis effort at a minimum yet still effective.
Answer: True
4. Collection of information is at the core of systems analysis.
Answer: True
5. Neutrality is a guideline for effective interviewing.
Answer: True
6. Open-ended questions are usually used to probe for information when you cannot anticipate all possible
responses or when you do not know the precise question to ask.
Answer: True
7. Open-ended questions can put interviewees at ease because they can respond in their own words using their
own structure.
Answer: True
8. Open-ended questions put the interviewee at ease, are easily summarized, and save time.
Answer: False
9. Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are known.
Answer: True
10. A major disadvantage of closed-ended questions is that useful information that does not quite fit the defined answers may be overlooked as the respondent tries to make a choice instead of providing his or her best answer.
Answer: True
11. Multiple choice, rating, and ranking are types of closed-ended questions.
Answer: True
12. You should use the interview process to set expectations about the new or replacement system.
Answer: False
13. Since observations are unbiased, they are preferable to other requirements determination techniques.
Answer: False
14. While being observed, employees may follow exact procedures more carefully than they typically do.
Answer: True
15. In documents you can find information about the values of the organization or individuals who can help determine priorities for different capabilities desired by different users.
Answer: True
16. In documents you can find information about special information processing circumstances that occur
irregularly.
Answer: True
17. When performing observations, it is best to select typical people and sites as opposed to atypical people and sites.
Answer: False
18. As a systems analyst, it is part of your job to create a document for a missing work procedure.
Answer: False
Chapter 4 Essentials of Systems Analysis and Design, Third Edition
19. If you encounter contradictory information about procedures from interviews, questionnaires, or observations, you should reconcile the contradictions before proceeding to other analysis tasks.
Answer: False
20. Informal systems develop because of inadequacies of formal procedures, individual work habits and
preferences, and resistance to control.
Answer: True
21. When gathering system requirements, document analysis and observation are used the least.
Answer: False
22. When comparing observations and document analysis, the chances for follow-up and probing with document analysis are rated high to excellent.
Answer: False
23. The primary purpose of using JAD in the analysis phase is to collect systems requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system.
Answer: True
24. A JAD is an inexpensive, popular requirements determination technique.
Answer: False
25. Referencing a JAD session, the sponsor is the individual responsible for organizing and running a JAD session.
Answer: False JAD Session Leader
26. In general, JADs benefit greatly from computer support.
Answer: False
27. The goal with using prototyping to support requirements determination is to build the ultimate system from prototyping.
Answer: False
28. The prototyping process encourages the formal documentation of system requirements.
Answer: False
Multiple-Choice Questions
29. Traditional methods of collecting systems requirements include:
a. interviews. b. agile methodologies.
c. Joint application design. d. Rapid application development.
e. Prototyping.
Answer: a
30. Which of the following is a traditional method of collecting systems requirements?
a. business process reengineering b. observations
c. Joint Application Design d. Rapid Application Development
e. prototyping
Answer: b
31. Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no prespecified answers are:
a. nonspecific questions. b. closed-ended questions.
c. open-ended questions. d. investigative questions.
e. exploratory questions.
Answer: c
32. One advantage of open-ended questions in an interview is:
a. a significant amount of time can be devoted to each interviewee.
b. the interviewee is restricted to providing just a few answers.
c. previously unknown information can result.
d. they work well when the answers to the questions are well known.
e. they are not biased.
Answer: c
Determining System Requirements
33. Which of the following can be considered an advantage of open-ended questions?
a. The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry.
b. Open-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
c. The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
d. Interviewees can respond in their own words using their own structure.
e. All of the above.
Answer: e
34. Questions in interviews and on questionnaires asking those responding to choose from among a set of
specified responses are:
a. specific questions. b. closed-ended questions.
c. open-ended questions. d. structured questions.
e. stratified questions.
Answer: b
35. Which of the following can be considered an advantage of closed-ended questions?
a. The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry.
b. Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are well known.
c. The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
d. Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
e. Previously unknown information may surface.
Answer: b
36. Which of the following is an advantage of closed-ended questions?
a. Interviews based on closed-ended questions do not necessarily require a large time commitment, so
more topics can be covered.
b. Closed-ended questions enable the analysts to explore information that does not quite fit defined
answers.
c. The analyst can obtain previously unknown information.
d. Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
e. The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
Answer: a
37. Rating a response or idea on some scale, say from strongly agree to strongly disagree, would be classified
as a(n):
a. open-ended question. b. stratified question. c. closed-ended question.
d. contemporary question. e. structured question.
Answer: c
38. Good interview guidelines consist of:
a. phrasing the question to illicit the correct response.
b. typing your notes within two weeks of the interview.
c. establishing expectation levels about the new system.
d. seeking a variety of perspectives from the interviews.
e. using as much time as you need.
Answer: d
39. Which of the following is a reason for directly observing end users?
a. The analyst gets a snapshot image of the person or task being observed.
b. Observations are not very time consuming.
c. People often do not have a completely accurate appreciation of what they do or how they do it.
d. Employees will alter their performance if they know that they are being observed.
e. Interviewing is less rich, passive, and often provides ambiguous data.
Answer: c
Chapter 4 Essentials of Systems Analysis and Design, Third Edition
40. The analysis of documents can help you identify:
a. problems with existing systems.
b. special information processing circumstances that occur irregularly and may not be identified by any
other requirements determination technique.
c. the reason why current systems are designed the way they are.
d. the organizational direction that can influence information system requirements.
e. all of the above.
Answer: e
41. Forms are important for understanding a business because they:
a. indicate the correct sequencing of tasks.
b. describe how particular tasks are performed.
c. indicate what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function.
d. enable you to work backwards from the information on a report to the necessary data that must have
been necessary to generate them.
e. identify duplicate efforts within a system.
Answer: c
42. Forms are most useful:
a. when they do not contain any data. b. during the initial planning stages.
c. when they contain actual organizational data. d. during the design stage.
e. during the requirements structuring stage.
Answer: c
43. A report:
a. indicates the inputs required for the new system.
b. describes how a particular job or task is performed, including data and information that are used and
created in the process of performing the job.
c. indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function.
d. enables you to work backward from the information on the document and identify the data that must have
been necessary to generate it.
e. does none of the above.
Answer: d
44. Which of the following is a modern method for collecting system requirements?
a. Interviewing b. Observations c. Document analysis
d. Joint Application Design e. Questionnaires
Answer: d
45. Which of the following is a true statement regarding JAD?
a. The primary purpose of using JAD in the analysis phase is to collect systems requirements
simultaneously from the key people involved with the system.
b. A working system is the end result of a JAD.
c. JAD sessions are usually conducted in the organization’s conference room.
d. A JAD session is inexpensive to conduct.
e. JADs benefit greatly from computer support.
Answer: a
46. When comparing observations and document analysis:
a. the time required to conduct observations compared to document analysis is low.
b. the expense of the observation method is quite low.
c. the potential audience of the observation method is limited.
d. a clear commitment is discernible.
e. the chances of probing and clarification are good with document analysis.
Answer: c
47. The typical participants in a JAD include:
a. a session leader. b. a scribe. c. a sponsor.
d. systems analysts. e. all of the above.
Answer: e
Determining System Requirements
48. The trained individual who plans and leads Joint Application Design sessions is referred to as the:
a. scribe. b. session leader. c. manager.
d. analyst. e. sponsor.
Answer: b
49. The person who makes detailed notes of the happenings at a Joint Application Design session is referred to
as the:
a. JAD analyst. b. scribe. c. JAD manager.
d. JAD session leader. e. JAD oracle.
Answer: b
50. Which of the following JAD participants use the system in question and provide insight into new
organizational directions, motivations for and organizational impacts of systems, and support for
requirements determined during the JAD?
a. Session leaders b. Sponsors c. Users
d. Scribes e. Managers
Answer: e
51. Drawbacks to prototyping include:
a. a tendency to avoid creating formal documentation of systems requirements which can then make the
system more difficult to develop into a fully working system.
b. prototypes becoming very idiosyncratic to the initial user and difficult to diffuse or adapt to other potential
users.
c. prototypes are often built as stand-alone systems.
d. checks in the SDLC are bypassed so that some more subtle, but still important, system requirements
might be forgotten.
e. all of the above.
Answer: e
52. Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when:
a. user requirements are well understood.
b. communication problems have existed in the past between users and analysts.
c. possible designs are simple and require an abstract form to fully evaluate.
d. multiple stakeholders are involved with the system.
e. data are not readily available.
Answer: b
Fill In the Blanks
53. Open-ended questions are questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no prespecified
answers.
54. Open-ended questions are usually used to probe for information when you cannot anticipate all possible
responses or when you do not know the precise questions to ask.
55. Closed-ended questions are questions in interviews and on questionnaires that ask those responding to
choose from among a set of specified responses.
56. A JAD session leader is the trained individual who plans and leads Joint Application Design sessions.
57. A scribe is the person who makes detailed notes of the happenings at a Joint Application Design session.
58. Prototyping is a repetitive process in which analysts and users build a rudimentary version of an information
system based on user feedback.
Chapter 6
Structuring System Requirements: Process Modeling
True-False Questions
1. A data-flow diagram (DFD) is a graphical tool that allows analysts to illustrate the flow of data in an information
system.
Answer: True
2. Logic modeling graphically represents the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data
between a system and its environment and among components within a system.
Answer: False
3. Data-flow diagramming is one of several structured analysis techniques used to increase software
development productivity.
Answer: True
4. A primitive level data-flow diagram is the first deliverable produced during requirements structuring.
Answer: False
5. Data-flow diagrams illustrate important concepts about data and their relationships.
Answer: False
6. Data-flow diagrams evolve from the more general to the more detailed as current and replacement systems
are better understood.
Answer: True
7. A data flow represents data in motion, moving from one place in the system to another.
Answer: True
8. On a data-flow diagram, a payment coupon mailed to the company is represented as a data store.
Answer: False
9. A course schedule request would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a data-flow.
Answer: True
10. The calculation of a student’s grade is represented on a data-flow diagram as a data flow.
Answer: False
11. The determination of which items are low in stock is represented on a data-flow diagram as a process.
Answer: True
12. Sources and sinks are internal to the system.
Answer: False
13. When constructing data-flow diagrams, you should show the interactions that occur between sources and
sinks.
Answer: False
14. The data a sink receives and often what data a source provides are fixed.
Answer: True
15. A Web site’s customer is represented as a source on a data-flow diagram.
Answer: True
16. A context diagram shows the scope of the organizational system, system boundaries, external entities that
interact with the system, and the major information flows between entities and the system.
Answer: True
17. Because the system’s data stores are conceptually inside the one process, no data stores appear on a context
diagram.
Answer: True
18. A level-0 diagram is a data-flow diagram that represents a system’s major processes, data flows, and data
stores at a high level of detail.
Answer: True
19. A data flow can go directly back to the same process it leaves.
Answer: False
Structuring System Requirements: Process Modeling
20. A data flow to a data store means update.
Answer: True
21. Data cannot move directly from a source to a sink.
Answer: True
22. A process has a verb label.
Answer: True
23. Double-ended arrows are used to represent data flowing in both directions.
Answer: False
24. Because a data flow name represents a specific set of data, another data flow that has even one more or one
less piece of data must be given a different, unique name.
Answer: True
25. The lowest-level data-flow diagrams are called level-0 diagrams.
Answer: False
26. One of the primary purposes of a DFD is to represent time, giving a good indication of whether data flows
occur constantly in real time, once a day, or once a year.
Answer: False
Multiple-Choice Questions
27. Data-flow diagrams allow you to:
a. show the timing of data flows. b. model how data flow through an information system.
c. demonstrate the sequencing of activities. d. show the relationship among entities.
e. represent the internal structure and functionality of processes.
Answer: b
28. Since data-flow diagrams concentrate on the movement of data between processes, these diagrams are often
referred to as:
a. process models. b. data models. c. flow models.
d. flow charts. e. logic models.
Answer: a
29. Graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system
and its environment and among components within a system refers to:
a. data modeling. b. structure modeling. c. process modeling.
d. transition modeling. e. logic modeling.
Answer: c
30. The diagram that shows the scope of the system, indicating what elements are inside and outside the system,
is called a:
a. context diagram. b. level-2 diagram. c. referencing diagram.
d. representative diagram. e. decomposition diagram.
Answer: a
31. Which of the following is not a process modeling deliverable?
a. A context data-flow diagram b. Thorough descriptions of each DFD component
c. DFDs of the current physical system d. An entity relationship diagram
e. DFDs of the new logical system
Answer: d
32. Data contained on a customer order form would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a:
a. process. b. data flow. c. source.
d. sink. e. relationship.
Answer: b
33. Student data contained on an enrollment form would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a:
a. process. b. data flow. c. source.
d. data store. e. relationship.
Answer: b
Chapter 5 Essentials of Systems Analysis and Design, Third Edition
34. Data in motion, moving from one place in a system to another, best describes a:
a. data store. b. process. c. source.
d. data flow. e. relationship.
Answer: d
35. Data at rest, which may take the form of many different physical representations, best describes a:
a. source. b. data store. c. data flow.
d. process. e. relationship.
Answer: b
36. A file folder containing orders would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a:
a. process. b. source. c. data flow.
d. data store. e. relationship.
Answer: d
37. A computer-based file containing employee information would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n):
a. data flow. b. source. c. data store.
d. process. e. action stub.
Answer: c
38. Recording a customer’s payment would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n):
a. process. b. source. c. data flow.
d. data store. e. action stub.
Answer: a
39. A supplier of auto parts to your company would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a:
a. process. b. source. c. data flow.
d. data store. e. relationship.
Answer: b
40. Which of the following would be considered when diagramming?
a. The interactions occurring between sources and sinks
b. How to provide sources and sinks direct access to stored data
c. How to control or redesign a source or sink
d. What a source or sink does with information or how it operates
e. None of the above.
Answer: e
41. The work or actions performed on data so that they are transformed, stored, or distributed defines:
a. source. b. data store. c. data flow.
d. process. e. action stub.
Answer: d
42. Which of the following is most likely a source/sink for a manufacturing system?
a. A customer b. A supplier c. Another information system
d. A bank e. All of the above.
Answer: e
43. The origin and/or destination of data, sometimes referred to as external entities defines:
a. source. b. data store. c. data flow.
d. process. e. predecessor.
Answer: a
44. Which of the following is a true statement regarding sources/sinks?
a. Sources/sinks are always outside the information system and define the boundaries of the system.
b. Data must originate outside a system from one or more sources.
c. The system must produce information to one or more sinks.
d. If any processing takes place inside the source/sink, we are not interested in it.
e. All of the above are true statements.
Answer: e
Structuring System Requirements: Process Modeling
45. A data-flow diagram that represents a system’s major processes, data flows, and data stores at a high level of
detail refers to a:
a. context diagram. b. level-1 diagram. c. level-0 diagram.
d. level-00 diagram. e. logic diagram.
Answer: c
46. Which of the following is a true statement regarding a data store?
a. Data can move directly from one data store to another data store.
b. Data stores illustrate relationships among entities.
c. A data store has a noun phrase label.
d. Data can move from an outside source to a data store.
e. A data store shows data in motion.
Answer: c
47. Which of the following is a true statement regarding data flows?
a. A data flow may have double-ended arrows.
b. A data flow to a data store means retrieve or use.
c. A data flow from a data store means update.
d. A join in a data flow means that exactly the same data come from any of two or more different processes,
data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location.
e. A data flow represents data at rest.
Answer: d
48. The act of going from a single system to several component processes refers to:
a. structuring. b. balancing. c. decomposition.
d. formatting. e. regeneration.
Answer: c
49. The lowest level of DFDs are:
a. level-0 diagrams. b. context diagrams. c. level-1 diagrams.
d. primitive data-flow diagrams. e. systematic diagrams.
Answer: d
50. The conservation of inputs and outputs to a data-flow diagram process when that process is decomposed to a
lower level defines:
a. decomposition. b. balancing. c. flow conservation.
d. data flow structuring. e. gap proofing.
Answer: b
51. If a data flow appears on the context diagram and is also represented on a level-0 diagram, this would be
referred to as:
a. leveling. b. flow conservation. c. balancing.
d. cohesion. e. coupling.
Answer: c
52. If an input from a source appears on a level-0 diagram, it must:
a. appear on the context diagram. b. be connected to a data flow.
c. be connected to a sink. d. be connected to a data store.
e. be connected to two entities.
Answer: a
53. When you believe that you have shown each business form or transaction, computer screen, and report as a
single data flow, you have probably reached the:
a. level-0 diagrams. b. ternary level diagrams. c. primitive data-flow diagrams.
d. secondary-level diagrams. e. context level diagrams.
Answer: c
54. The lowest level of decomposition for a data-flow diagram is called the:
a. context diagram. b. level-0 diagram. c. level-1 diagram.
d. primitive diagram. e. cohesive diagram.
Answer: d
Chapter 5 Essentials of Systems Analysis and Design, Third Edition
Fill In the Blanks
55. Process modeling graphically represents the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data
between a system and its environment and among components within a system.
56. A data-flow diagram (DFD) is a graphic that illustrates the movement of data between external entities and
the processes and data stores within a system.
57. A data store represents data at rest, which may take the form of many different physical representations.
58. Processes are the work or actions performed on data so that they are transformed, stored, or distributed.
59. Source/sink is the origin and/or destination of data.
60. A context diagram is a data-flow diagram of the scope of an organizational system that shows the system
boundaries, external entities that interact with a system, and the major information flows between entities and
the system.
61. A level-0 diagram is a data-flow diagram that represents a system’s major processes, data flows, and data
stores at a high level of detail.
62. Balancing is the conservation of inputs and outputs to a data-flow diagram process when that process is
decomposed to a lower level.
63. A primitive DFD is the lowest level of decomposition for a data-flow diagram.
Quiz Questions
Systems analysis is the first phase of the systems development life cycle.
Selected Answer:
False
Correct Answer:
False
Question 2
2 out of 2 points
The systems development life cycle is a sequentially ordered set of phases.
Selected Answer:
False
Correct Answer:
False
Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a system characteristic?
Selected Answer:
Scope
Correct Answer:
Scope
Question 4
2 out of 2 points
Dependence of one part of the system on one or more other system parts best describes:
Selected Answer:
Inter-relationship
Correct Answer:
Inter-relationship
Question 5
0 out of 2 points
The environment of the case study: Hosier Burger's Information System ( that takes care of customer ordering, inventory control and management reporting) would NOT include:
Selected Answer:
Supplier
Correct Answer:
Customer
Question 1
2 out of 2 points
Management information systems
Selected Answer:
take raw data that have been previously captured and convert them into a meaningful aggregated form that managers need to conduct their responsibilities.
Correct Answer:
take raw data that have been previously captured and convert them into a meaningful aggregated form that managers need to conduct their responsibilities.
Question 2
2 out of 2 points
An interface separates a system from other systems
Selected Answer:
False
Correct Answer:
False
Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Outsourcing refers to turning over responsibility of some or all of an organization's information systems applications and operations to an outside firm.
Selected Answer:
True
Correct Answer:
True
Question 4
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following would NOT be a step in Initiating the Project?
Selected Answer:
Describe project scope, alternatives and feasibility
Correct Answer:
Describe project scope, alternatives and feasibility
Question 5
2 out of 2 points
Decision Support Systems (DSS) take input from ...
Selected Answer:
All of the above
Correct Answer:
All of the above
Question 1
2 out of 2 points
A deliverable is an end product in a phase of the SDLC.
Selected Answer:
True
Correct Answer:
True
Question 2
2 out of 2 points
A/An ____________ benefit is a benefit that can be measured in dollars and with some degree of certainty.
Selected Answer:
tangible
Correct Answer:
Tangible
tangible
Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following is an example of tangible benefit?
Selected Answer:
Error Reduction
Correct Answer:
Error Reduction
Question 4
2 out of 2 points
What would be the estimated time for completion if the time estimates for report design are as follows: optimistic = 4 weeks; pessimistic = 12 weeks; realistic = 5 weeks?
Selected Answer:
6 weeks
Correct Answer:
6 weeks
Question 5
2 out of 2 points
An activity on the critical path will have a slack time of 1.
Selected Answer:
False
Correct Answer:
False
Question 1
2 out of 2 points
Data contained on a customer order form would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a
Selected Answer:
Data Flow
Correct Answer:
Data Flow
Question 2
2 out of 2 points
Data-flow diagrams illustrate important concepts about data and their relationships.
Selected Answer:
False
Correct Answer:
False
Question 3
0 out of 2 points
Recording a customer’s payment would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n):
Selected Answer:
data store
Correct Answer:
process
Question 4
2 out of 2 points
Because the system’s data stores are conceptually inside the one process, no data stores appear on a context diagram.
Selected Answer:
True
Correct Answer:
True
Question 5
2 out of 2 points
Since data-flow diagrams concentrate on the movement of data between processes, these diagrams are often referred to as
Selected Answer:
Process Models
Correct Answer:
Process Models
Previous Test:
SDLC? Systems planning and selection > analysis > design > implementation and operation
Components, Interrelated Components, Boundary, Purpose, Environment, Interfaces, Input, Output, Constraints.
List categorize methods:
Traditional: interview, survey, observation
Modern: prototyping, JAD
Context diagram:
Level 0 diagram
-pay attention to environment & consistency
-identify and explain potential
-violations of rules & make corrections DFD’s
-Different names and #s are used for same data store on the 2 diagrams
- level 0 diagram, data store, class roster doesn’t have data flow, scheduled classes flowing in rather DF connects 2&3
-process 1 does nothing
Project
-Identify critical path
-=draw network diagram
-finish table by calculating Tl, Te, slack and expect done time
-if project was taking too long how to shorten entire duration recommend what?
-what happens if changed to 6 weeks instead of 2? Why?
-how will it change critical path
-increased time allowed for project
Break even sheet
-calculate overall npv roi
-calculate breakeven ratio and breakeven point
-if project started jan 2009 can expec bep by july 4 2010 why?
Systems Analysis and Design: Developing and maintaining an information system
Component: irreducible part that makes up a system
Interrelated Components: dependence of one part of the system on another
System=house, Environment=outside the house
Decomposition: breaking description system into small components
Modularity: dividing a system into chunks or modules of equal size
Coupling: extent of subsystems that depend on each other
Cohesion: a system or subsystem performs one function
Systems Development Life Cycle: Series of steps used to mark phases of development of a system
1) Planning & Selection: total info system needs analyzed, arranged. Potential systems project is identified and an argument for continuing and not continuing is presented.
2) Systems Analysis: current system studies and alternative replacements are proposed
3) Systems Design: system chosen for development is described and transformed into tech-specific details from which programming and construction can be accomplished.
4) Systems Implementation and Operation: system coded, tested, installed in organization.
Components, Interrelated Components, Boundary, Purpose, Environment, Interfaces, Input, Output, Constraints.
CIRCUmfERENCe: Components InterRelated Components boUndary EnviRonmEnt iNterfaces Constraints
PM – Initiating, planning, executing, and closing down
pIPELINe: Initiating Planning Executing cLosIng down
Traditional: Observation, Interviewing, Document Analysis
Modern: JAD, Prototyping
JAD – Session Leader, Scribe, Sponsor, Systems Analyst
System’s boundary, scope, relationship to to its environment in a DFD it context diagram (overview).
DFD that focuses on details (major processes, data flows, data stores) of context diagram is level-0.
DFS=Process Model, Primitive DFD = Lowest level
Conservation of data flow on higher and lower (ie context and level-0 or lvl-0 & lvl-1) diagrams is BALANCING.
