|
1.
Psychology is BEST described as the study of A. group processes. B. research techniques. C. thought and awareness. D.
behavior and mental processes. 2. When he
took an introductory psychology course, James learned that psychology is
the study of A. conscious experience. B. unconscious experience. C. states of consciousness. D.
behavior and mental processes. 3. Marta
studies how people behave in group settings. What kind of psychologist
is she? A. developmental B. comparative C. clinical D. social 4. Jane
received a doctorate in psychology. She often becomes frustrated when
people assume she treats behavioral disorders. However, Jane knows that
these people do not realize that A. there are many subfields of psychology. B. most psychologists work for businesses. C. doctoral-level psychologists only do research. D.
doctoral-level psychologists do not treat mental patients. 5.
According to the textbook, more psychologists work in _____ than in any
other employment setting. A. private practice B. academic institutions C. government agencies D. mental
hospitals 6. If you
were asked where clinical psychologists conduct their work, which would
be the BEST answer? A. "All clinicians work in private practice." B. "Most clinicians work in academic settings." C. "Very few clinicians work in hospitals." D.
"Clinicians work in a variety of settings." 7. A
scientist who uses inference to try to understand an event may lack A. introspection. B. functionalism. C. determinism. D.
objectivity. 8. Dr.
Turrisi believes he can discover why people become alcoholics. What
principle, important to the scientific approach, does his belief
demonstrate? A. empiricism B. determinism C. replication D.
intuition 9.
Correlation coefficients range between A. 1.00 and 100. B. 0 and 10. C. -1.00 and 1.00. D. 50 and
100. 10. As a
researcher, you want to know the effects of high, moderate, and low
anxiety on test performance. The research technique that provides such
information is A. descriptive research. B. experimentation. C. the case study. D. the
correlational study. 11. What
is the name of the process used to place subjects into experimental
groups? A. empirical assignment B. variable assignment C. objective assignment D. random
assignment 12. Molly,
a journalism student, would like to interview a representative sample of
seniors about their views on premarital sex. Of the following
recommendations, which would most likely produce a representative
sample? A. finding and interviewing the most popular seniors B. interviewing seniors who have children C. interviewing seniors selected at random by computer D.
interviewing every other senior as they leave honors biology 13.
Marcie, a three-year-old toddler, has been afraid of dogs for some time.
Which of the following techniques would be most useful in understanding
the child's fear? A. field study B. case study C. naturalistic observation D.
experimental study 14. A
correlation coefficient of zero has been calculated in determining the
association between two variables. In this case what is the relationship
between the variables? A. there is no relationship B. there is a strong relationship C. there is a positive relationship D. there
is a negative relationship 15. If
research subjects are properly assigned to experimental groups, then
assignment to groups is based on A. age of subject. B. chance alone. C. intelligence level. D. year in
school. 16. When
an interaction takes place in a study, it means that the outcomes of one
variable _______ the other variable. A. are not correlated with B. negate any effects of C. depend on D. are
unrelated to 17. An
interest in the purpose, adaptiveness, and utility of behavior is
characteristic of A. functionalism. B. behaviorism. C. structuralism. D.
cognitive psychology. 18. The
school of thought that focuses on studying overt behavior and ignoring
the workings of the inner mind is A. structuralism. B. cognition. C. behaviorism. D.
psychoanalysis. 19. Watson
and Skinner believed that psychology should focus upon A. the inner working of the mind. B. behaviors that are observable and measurable. C. unconscious processes involved in dreaming. D. the
understanding of organizational behavior. 20. Jack
believes people behave in certain ways because of genetic
predispositions. Which modern perspective in psychology emphasizes
Jack's belief? A. humanistic B. behavioral C. sociocultural D.
biological 21. If the
primary motivation of research is to seek solutions for society's urgent
problems, then the research is considered A. applied. B. basic. C. conceptual. D.
empirical. 22. The
structural component of the neuron which receives information from other
neurons is the A. axon. B. axon terminal. C. synapse. D.
dendrite. 23. On a
neuron, where would you find myelin and nodes of Ranvier? A. axon B. cell body C. dendrite D. axon
terminal 24. Where
would you locate the nucleus of a neuron? A. synapse B. cell body C. axon terminal D.
dendrite 25. Which
of the following BEST describes the route information takes as it passes
through a neuron? A. cell body, axon, dendrites B. cell body, dendrites, axon C. dendrites, cell body, axon D. axon
terminal, axon, cell body 26. When
the difference between the charges on the outside and inside of the cell
membrane averages -70 millivolts, what is the state of the neuron? A. It is about to spike. B. The membrane is responding to large amounts of an excitatory neurotransmitter. C. The neuron is at its resting potential. D. The
axon is releasing inhibitory neurotransmitters. 27. Once a
spike is triggered and begins traveling down the axon, it remains the
same size the entire length of the axon. This is explained by A. the presence of negative ions. B. the all-or-none principle. C. Weber's Law. D. ionic
diffusion. 28. In a
lab experiment you are able to manipulate the permeability of a giant
squid axon. What would you do to produce an action potential? A. make the cell membrane permeable to negative ions B. make the cell membrane impermeable to positive ions C. make the axon membrane impermeable to all charged particles D. make
the axon membrane permeable to sodium ions 29. What
is TRUE regarding the rate at which action potentials occur in a neuron? A. the rate can vary B. the rate is controlled by the all-or-none principle C. the rate is constant D. the
rate is determined by the size of the initial spike 30. A
single neuron receives input from many other neural cells. This input is
summarized and integrated within the A. axon hillock. B. cell nucleus. C. axon terminal. D. myelin
sheath. 31.
Electrical signal is to chemical signal as _______ is to _______. A. spike; action potential B. action potential; spike C. axonal conduction; synaptic transmission D.
synaptic transmission; axonal conduction 32. Which
of the following is a test to determine whether a substance is a
neurotransmitter? A. check to see if the substance causes sodium channels to close B. test whether the substance causes dendrites to spike C. check to see if the substance is concentrated in the cell body D. test
whether the substance mimics the action of the presynaptic neuron 33.
Magnetic resonance imaging is a technique that works by A. measuring the glucose levels in the brain. B. constructing three-dimensional images using X-rays. C. recording the electrical activity of the brain waves. D. using
magnetic fields and radio waves to construct images. 34.
Clayton requested that, in obtaining a detailed picture of his brain,
his doctor use a technique that takes multiple X-rays. Clayton's doctor
will MOST likely use what technique? A. CAT scan B. PET scan C. MRI D. EEG 35. Cells
that provide the brain with structural support and filter out harmful
substances are called A. glial cells. B. limbic cells. C. myelinated neurons. D.
inhibitory neurons. 36. The
CNS control center for breathing, heart rate, and digestion is found in
the A. spinal cord. B. cerebral lobes. C. thalamus. D.
medulla. 37. The
central nervous system (CNS) is somehow related to the brain and spinal
cord. What is the relationship? A. CNS connects the brain and spinal cord to the peripheral nervous system. B. CNS connects the brain to the spinal cord. C. CNS separates the brain and the spinal cord. D. CNS is
the brain and the spinal cord. 38. John
suffered a stroke that left him paralyzed on the right side of his body.
This indicates that the stroke damaged the A. left side of the brain. B. right side of the brain. C. the lower spinal cord. D. the
upper spinal cord. 39. Which
part of the peripheral nervous system monitors the status of internal
organs and processes? A. central B. somatic C. autonomic D. motor 40. You
are sitting at a traffic light; when it turns green, you take your foot
off the brake and start to accelerate. The information about the nature
of the light was conveyed to the brain by _______ neurons. The
instruction to release the brakes and accelerate was conveyed to the
muscles by _______ neurons. A. afferent; efferent B. efferent; afferent C. parasympathetic; sympathetic D.
sympathetic; parasympathetic 41. Which
gland is responsible for the production of several different hormones
and is often referred to as the master gland? A. adrenal gland B. testes C. pituitary gland D.
parathyroid gland 42. Which
of the following glands significantly influences a person's mood, energy
level, and stress-coping mechanisms? A. exocrine B. endocrine C. adrenal D.
pituitary 43. Which
of the following hormones is correctly paired with its function? A. testosterone: sex hormone B. estrogen: growth hormone C. testosterone: releasing factor D.
estrogen: sympathetic hormone 44. Your
awareness of what is going on in the world around you is called your A. senescence. B. evoked potential. C. consciousness. D.
personality. 45. As a
subject in a psychological study, Alan has been trained to provide a
detailed description of his conscious experience as he focuses his
attention on a flashing light. The technique being used in this study is A. meditation. B. introspection. C. hidden observation. D.
mesmerism. 46. Sam
uses a research approach that studies how people attend to, select, and
integrate information. Which approach does Sam use? A. clinical-output B. waveform-decision C. hidden observer D.
information-processing 47. When
EEGs are recorded, recording electrodes are placed A. in the brain. B. on the scalp. C. over closed eyelids. D. on the
back of the neck. 48. When
demands on our attention are high, elevated EEG activity is seen in
which brain lobe? A. temporal B. parietal C. occipital D.
cerebellar 49. What
is the relationship between EEGs and evoked potentials? A. Evoked potentials are EEGs linked to a specific stimulus. B. EEGs are evoked potentials linked to a specific stimulus. C. EEGs and evoked potentials are exactly the same thing. D. There
is no relationship between EEGs and evoked potentials. 50. A
circadian rhythm is a _______-hour rhythm that corresponds to the
earth's _______. A. 12; rotation B. 12; gravity C. 24; rotation D. 24;
gravity 51. As
part of a class assignment, Debbie, a premed student, kept hourly
records of her own blood pressure and body temperature over a thirty-day
period. After graphing the data, it became clear that these readings
changed in a predictable way on a daily basis. The reason for this
regularity is that many physiological processes A. are determined by subconscious expectations. B. are governed by circadian rhythms. C. are controlled by daily lunar cycles. D. are
correlated with daily lunar cycles. 52.
Physiological processes such as heart rate and blood pressure fluctuate
cyclically during a twenty-four-hour period. Biological rhythms like
this are known as A. alpha cycles. B. circadian rhythms. C. synchronies. D.
rotational rhythms. 53. Jason
is going through puberty. Based on your knowledge of biological rhythms,
you expect that he will show a preference for activity at what time of
day? A. early morning B. late afternoon C. late at night D. late
morning 54. When
relaxed, a person's EEG is characterized by high amplitude waves that
occur eight to twelve times per second. These waves are called A. delta waves. B. beta waves. C. alpha waves. D. spindle
waves. 55. Which
of the following sleep patterns best represents a typical night's sleep
for a human? A. increasingly deeper sleep throughout the sleep period B. increasingly lighter sleep throughout the sleep period C. four hours of deep sleep followed by cycles of REM and light sleep D.
repeating cycles of deeper sleep, dreaming, and lighter sleep 56. When
alpha waves are detected on a person's EEG record, the person is most
likely in which of the following states of consciousness? A. very deep sleep B. REM sleep C. a high state of anxiety D.
relaxation 57. REM,
as in REM sleep, stands for A. repeatedly excited muscles. B. rapid eye movement. C. relaxed eye movement. D. relaxed
emotional movement. 58.
Dreaming, frequent eye movements, and low muscle tone are characteristic
of _______ sleep. A. slow-wave sleep B. stage 4 C. non-REM D. REM 59. In her
sleep laboratory, Dr. Zungi has instructed her lab assistants to wake
subjects when they have exhibited rapid eye movements for more than
thirty seconds. What does Dr. Zungi expect the subjects to report upon
awakening? A. hypnotic suggestions B. dreams C. delta-wave activity D.
feelings of extreme anxiety 60. Which
psychological school of thought is MOST interested in the content of
dreams? A. psychoanalytic B. humanistic C. behavioral D.
cognitive 61.
Sometimes people know they are dreaming, even while they are still
asleep. This is called A. lucid dreaming. B. suggestibility. C. sleep processing. D. latent
dreaming. 62.
Compared to the waking hours, how active are neurons during REM sleep? A. just as active B. 30 percent less active C. much more active D. they
are not active at all 63. Which
theory of why we sleep would have little function in modern humans? A. recuperation from stress B. protection from predators C. consolidation of memories D.
augments immune functioning 64.
Although he thought he was using magnetism to treat his patients,
_______ may have been the first person to use hypnosis. A. Sigmund Freud B. Wilhelm Wundt C. Anton Mesmer D. Ernest
Hilgard 65. Which
of the following is a characteristic of hypnosis? A. attention is highly divided B. a low level of suggestibility is desired C. attention is highly focused D. person
adheres to logical situations only 66. If you
believe that hypnosis is an example of divided consciousness, then you
would agree with A. Mesmer. B. Hilgard. C. Boa. D. Freud. 67. Mary
feels like laughing at the sight of a banana. She under- went hypnosis
the day before and is amazed to learn that an instruction to laugh at
bananas was given during hypnosis. The hypnotic technique used with Mary
is called A. hypnotic induction. B. hypnotic regression. C. posthypnotic suggestion. D.
psychoactive hypnosis. 68. While
fifty-year-old John was under hypnosis, the hypnotist told him that he
was really six years old. At that point John began talking and acting as
if he were actually six. This phenomenon is an example of A. posthypnotic suggestion. B. age regression. C. hypnotic induction. D.
hypnotic amnesia. 69. If
someone exhibits an extraordinary level of suggestibility, the person
would A. make a good hypnotist. B. make a good psychologist. C. be easy to hypnotize. D. be
difficult to hypnotize. 70. The
primary aim of those who use psychoactive drugs is A. relief from addiction. B. alteration of consciousness. C. illegal profit-making. D.
avoidance of tolerance. 71. A
person has a prescription to take a drug for six months. By the end of
six months, the same dosage level has a smaller behavioral effect than
it did at the beginning of the prescription. The person has developed A. tolerance. B. addiction. C. withdrawal symptoms. D.
psychological dependence. 72.
Psychoactive drugs categorized as depressants tend to A. reduce activity in the nervous system. B. stimulate the peripheral nervous system. C. remove hallucinations and unpleasant emotional states. D.
increase slow-wave brain activity. 73. How
does alcohol produce its behavioral effects? A. it stimulates the pleasure centers in the brain B. it activates the release of endorphins C. it energizes the central nervous system D. it
inhibits brain activities 74. Sound
vibrations enter the ear and are sent to the brain. This is an example
of A. integration. B. accommodation. C. sensation. D.
perception. 75. When
incoming sensory signals are integrated and interpreted by the central
nervous system, the process of _______ has occurred. A. transmission B. transduction C. sensation D.
perception 76. When
information about the environment is transmitted to the brain, what has
occurred? A. sensation B. conduction C. accommodation D.
adaptation 77. Mary
smells an aroma and identifies it as turkey being roasted; she is
relying upon the process of A. accommodation. B. perception. C. precognition. D.
audition. 78. As a
subject in an experiment, John was instructed to listen until he
detected a sound. The experimenter recorded the point at which John
reported hearing the sound. The experimenter established John's _______
for hearing. A. absolute threshold B. difference threshold C. attention span D.
dichotic span 79. Betty
found that the just noticeable difference (j.n.d.) for a ten-pound
weight was one pound. Assuming Weber's Law allows perfect prediction,
how much weight will be needed for a j.n.d. at fifty pounds? A. twenty pounds B. ten pounds C. five pounds D. one
pound 80. Each
sensory system has specialized cells that convert physical energy into
neural signals. These cells are called A. imagers. B. transducers. C. receptors. D.
refractors. 81. When
scientists attempt to measure the absolute thresholds of human sensory
systems, subjects often guess, saying that they detect the stimulus when
it really is not present. The technique in which "false alarms" are used
to circumvent this guessing tendency is known as A. Weber's Law. B. transduction. C. perceptual constancy. D. signal
detection. 82. The
transparent structure that protects the front of the eye is the A. iris. B. blind spot. C. cornea. D. pupil. 83. Where
is the blind spot of the eye located? A. in the center of the fovea B. where the ganglion cells leave the retina C. where the rods converge to form the cones D. in the
center of the sclera 84. The
visual receptors that relay information about color and fine detail are
the A. ganglion cells. B. cornea cells. C. cones. D. rods. 85. What
is special about the area of the retina called the fovea? A. it contains only ganglion cells B. it contains only rods C. it contains only cones D. it
contains only feature detectors 86. The
opening in the center of the _______ is the _______. A. retina; pupil B. pupil; iris C. iris; pupil D. iris;
retina 87. As
John looks at the stars on a very dark night, he notices that the stars
in his peripheral vision seem to be brighter than those in his central
vision. This is because peripheral vision A. depends on the rods. B. depends on the cones. C. depends on ganglion cells. D. depends
on accommodation. 88. A
person born without rods would have which of the following sensory
deficits? A. poor peripheral vision B. inability to detect temperature C. impaired color vision D.
inability to detect sour taste 89. As
John leaves bright daylight and enters a darkened room, his eyes will
adjust and become increasingly sensitive. This process is called A. dark adaptation. B. stereoscopic vision. C. convergence. D.
accommodation. 90. What
three classes of cones were predicted by the trichromatic theory of
color vision? A. white, black, and gray B. black, white, and red C. red, green, and blue D. blue,
green, and yellow 91. The
opponent process theory of color vision predicted that each receptor
cell A. was sensitive to three colors. B. was sensitive to two colors C. responded to an individual color. D.
responded to adjacent primary colors. 92. After
looking at a colored block, Larry looked away and saw a green
afterimage. The block that Larry had been looking at was MOST likely
what color? A. red B. yellow C. blue D. green 93.
Stereoscopic vision supplies cues that are vital in judging A. color. B. shape. C. distance. D.
brightness. 94. A
stimulus is moved around a subject's visual field. At the same time, a
researcher is recording the firing rate of a cell along the visual
pathway. The cell's firing rate changes only when the stimulus is placed
in a certain portion of the visual field. This is called the sensory
cell's A. receptive field. B. pattern range. C. monocular field. D.
binocular range. 95. Which
of the following is a binocular cue for depth? A. experience B. convergence C. signaling of complex cells D. Mach
banding 96. Which
part of the ear is mainly responsible for amplifying and transmitting
sound waves? A. inner ear B. middle ear C. outer ear D. cochlea 97.
Margie's doctor told her that her hair cells were damaged. Which of
Margie's sensory systems was impaired? A. olfaction B. audition C. touch D. pain 98. Which
structure connects the outer ear to the middle ear? A. cochlea B. eardrum C. basilar membrane D.
auditory canal 99. What
aspect of sound is measured in decibels? A. wavelength B. noise level C. frequency D. pitch 100. Which
ear structure is the first to convert sound waves into physical
vibrations? A. stapes B. basilar membrane C. cochlea D. ear
drum 101. When
shown an incomplete picture, people tend to fill in the gaps and
perceive it as a complete form. This illustrates the perceptual
principle of A. similarity. B. proximity. C. closure. D. good
condition. 102. You
are standing on the railroad tracks and a train is coming toward you.
When the train is far away, the image is tiny; as it gets closer, the
image becomes larger. The reason you conclude that the train is
approaching you, and not actually growing bigger is A. convergence. B. disregard for the Ponzo illusion. C. size constancy. D. the
figure-ground principle. 103.
Similarity and proximity are perceptual principles that help us A. organize complex auditory information. B. organize complex visual information. C. determine the size of an object. D.
determine how far away an object is. 104. We
are constantly being bombarded by millions of stimuli. We are able to
filter out most of this stimulation to only a fraction of the stimuli.
The process by which this is accomplished is called A. perceptual constancy. B. perceptual set. C. selective attention. D.
selective sensation. 105.
Learning is referred to as a _______ change in behavior that occurs
_______. A. relatively permanent; with experience B. relatively permanent; innately C. absolutely permanent; with experience D.
absolutely permanent; innately 106. Your
behavior is altered because you attended class. This is an example of A. classical conditioning. B. development. C. learning. D.
motivation. 107.
Evidence suggests that the MOST important factor in "learning to walk"
is A. prior experience. B. maturation. C. genetic inheritance. D. operant
conditioning. 108. How
are learning and performance related? A. Learning and performance are the same thing. B. Learning only occurs through performance. C. Performance and learning are unrelated. D.
Performance is a measure of learning. 109. In
Pavlov's classic experiments, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) was A. the bell. B. the food. C. the salivation. D. Pavlov
himself. 110. An
actress applied onion juice to a handkerchief and dabbed it under her
eyes to help her cry in certain scenes. After several scenes she found
she no longer needed the onion juice and only used the handkerchief to
elicit tears. What was the unconditioned response in this example? A. onion juice B. handkerchief C. dabbing D. tears 111. Which
of the following correctly describes the sequence of events in the
classical conditioning paradigm? A. a behavior is followed by a positive reinforcer B. an unconditioned response is followed by an unconditioned stimulus C. a stimulus is reinforced by a response D. an
unconditioned stimulus is preceded by a conditioned stimulus 112.
Allison was stung by a wasp and had an allergic reaction. She is now
afraid of all flying insects. Allison is exhibiting A. stimulus discrimination. B. stimulus generalization. C. experimental neurosis. D. learned
helplessness. 113. Blake
uses canned dog food. His dog runs into the kitchen expecting food every
time someone uses the electric can opener. Which of the following would
extinguish the dog's behavior? A. pair the conditioned stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus B. substitute the unconditioned response with an unconditioned stimulus C. start feeding the dog bagged food D. only
feed the dog once a day 114. Which
of the following sets of variables would MOST likely be associated with
operant conditioning? A. conditioned stimulus, conditioned response B. insight, observation, imitation C. modeling, involuntary behavior D.
stimulus, response, reinforcer 115. If
you are using operant conditioning and you want to decrease the
probability of a behavior, try A. positive reinforcement. B. negative reinforcement. C. punishment. D.
counterconditioning. 116. Which
of the following men developed many of the important principles of
operant conditioning? A. Albert Bandura B. Ivan Pavlov C. Sigmund Freud D. B. F.
Skinner 117. Any
behavior that occurs on its own is called a(n) A. respondent. B. extinguished behavior. C. shaped behavior. D.
operant. 118.
Johnny receives a lot of attention whenever he throws a tantrum.
Recently, his mother noticed he has been throwing more tantrums.
Extinguishing his tantrum behavior would require A. scolding Johnny whenever he had a tantrum. B. withholding attention for undesirable behavior. C. having a tantrum along with the child. D. giving
Johnny more attention during his tantrum. 119. In
terms of what happens to the response, what is the relationship between
positive and negative reinforcement? A. neither has an effect on behavior B. one strengthens behavior and the other weakens behavior C. they both strengthen behavior D. they
both weaken behavior 120. How
does partial reinforcement differ from continuous reinforcement? A. Partial reinforcement does not occur on a fixed ratio schedule. B. Partial reinforcement does not occur on a variable interval schedule. C. Partial reinforcement is less resistant to extinction D. Partial
reinforcement is more resistant to extinction. 121. Mary
is troubled by back pain due to muscle tension. Which of the following
procedures would be most useful in helping Mary to ease or prevent
muscle tension? A. biofeedback B. extinction training C. programmed instruction D.
conditioned tolerance 122. When
Jill becomes anxious, her heart rate increases. Through observing her
heart rate on a monitor, Jill has learned to decrease her heart rate
when she feels anxious. As a result, Jill also lowers her feelings of
anxiety. The technique that Jill has learned to use is called A. extinction. B. observational learning. C. biofeedback. D.
cognitive learning. 123. Even
without being rewarded, Allie learned the solution to a unique problem.
What kind of learning was MOST likely involved? A. operant conditioning B. insight learning C. biofeedback training D.
classical conditioning 124. Which
of the following is a key factor in observational learning? A. CS-US interval B. positive reinforcers C. model imitation D.
superstitious behavior 125. When
we avoid a specific taste after a previous unpleasant experience was
associated with it, researchers call this phenomenon A. a taste inversion. B. operant conditioning. C. a flavor aversion. D. insight learning.
|