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All Scipture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.
  —2 Tim. 3:16-17

Watch your life and doctrine closely. Persevere in them, because if you do, you will save both yourself and your hearers.
  —1 Tim. 4:16

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In agreement with the Cambridge declaration


The Bible is inerrant and infallible

This axiom is used in every article in the theology section. Without such an axiom, discussion of theology is impossible. The liberal so-called "Christian" camp in theological circles deny this, of course. However, I would really like to know how they can know anything for certain about God from the Bible alone (they can't), since Christianity is based on Christ which is revealed in the Bible. Thus, for theology, this axiom is a must otherwise studies in it should no longer be called theology.

Regarding whether the usage of this axiom makes one biased, the article here will show that absolute objectivity without the use of axioms does not exist. Thus, the usage of such an axiom is perfectly valid in our discussion. But does the Bible actually says it is inerrant and infallible? In other words, is there internal evidence that this axiom is valid? We will look at it in detail below.

Internal evidence

The Bible itself says that is in inerrant and infallible. This can be substantiated by the verses in the Bible which support both positions.

To this end, I would first show that the Bible attests to its divine authorship. Once the Bible is considered to be from God, the issue of inerrancy and infallibility ultimately rests on the character of God. If God cannot lie and he is omniscient, then if the Bible is from Him, it is inerrant. If God is the barometer of truth and the Bible dictates spiritual and moral truths, then if the Bible is from Him, it is infallible. In fact, the two concepts — inerrancy and infallibility, are interlinked; you can't have an infallible Bible without an inerrant one, though you can have an inerrant Bible without an infallible one. The issues of divine authorship of the Bible, inerrancy and i infallibility of Scripture would now be considered below:

The case for the divine authorship of the Bible

Key verse:
Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation. For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit (2 Peter 1:20-21)

In this two verses, we can see that Peter is saying that Scripture was not written just because the prophet feels like writing it. Scripture was written because the Holy Spirit inspires men to write it. Note that it is done by men who "spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit", not "dictated by God". Thus there a very human element in the Scriptures, in that the style and flow of the portions of Scripture written by the authors will reflect their own style of writing. Nevertheless, the content of Scripture itself comes from God, as the Holy Spirit inspires their writing.

A common objection to the divine nature of Scripture is that since humans write it down, and humans make errors, the Scripture itself must have errors. However, this presupposes the fact that God could not make it such that the human writers make no errors while writing down Scripture. It is a known fact that humans can make no errors once in a while when writing something, thus it is possible for the human authors not to make any errors when writing Scripture when they are inspired and empowered by the Holy Spirit. This is especially so since they are not writing down their own thoughts, only using their style of writing in writing down the Scripture.

(Another passage in which divine authorship of the Bible is mentioned is in Deut. 6:1, where the book of Deuteronomy is said to be of divine authorship.)

However, all this is meaningless if we do not know which books of the Bible are of divine authorship, as in whether the verse 2 Peter 1:20-21 applies only to the book of 2 Peter or of the other books of the Bible, and of which books. For example, does this verse then apply to the Apocrypha?

To answer this question, we must first look at the verse 2 Peter 1:20-21. From the verse, we can see that this verse mentions about "prophecy of Scripture" and the "prophet's own interpretation", which are general terms, thus this implies that the purpose of this verse is not to pinpoint which books are inspired, but just to state that the books of Scripture, whatever they may be, are inspired by God.

Next, onto the topic of which books are inspired, or which books are canonical, one way of doing this is to see which books were said to be canonical or Scripture from the Bible. However, this method, while good, would not help us solve the problem of other books which are not mentioned in the Bible. For more information on the first method and of solving the second problem, to determine which books are Scripture and which are not, click here. (Btw, the Apocrypha are not Scripture)

The case for inerrancy

Inerrancy of Scripture implies that there are no errors in the Bible, whether be it theological, moral, scientific or philosophical. To prove that from Scripture, we must prove that God does not lie and God is omniscient (the divine authorship of the Bible being proven above). Both of them are necessary. If God may lie, then the Scripture may not be inerrant as there may be falsehoods therein. If God does not lie but He is not omniscient, then He may not be intentionally lying, but because He does not know everything, he may utter falsehoods.

The Scriptures say that God does not lie (Numbers 23:19, 1 Sam. 15:29). Also, God is omniscient (Is. 46:9-10). Therefore, the Scriptures are inerrant.

Since the Scriptures are inerrant, what do we make of evidences that "prove" that the Scriptures contradict themselves and/or contradict science or ay other field? It is my contention that a careful analysis of the contradictions in the former case or the evidences in the latter case would show that the claims are unfounded. This is shown in the following section here.

The case for infallibility

Infallibility of Scripture implies that whatever Scripture says is authoritative. We have show above that Scripture attests to its inerrancy and its divine authorship. Thus, the only thing that we need to ascertain is whether God is the barometer of truth (as for example, a bill could be without errors but it is definitely not infallible) and whether the Bible dictates spiritual and moral truths.

The Bible says that God IS truth (John 14:6), not that he has the truth, but He personifies truth. Thus, he is definitely the barometer of truth. The Bible also does dictate spiritual and moral truths, for example in Rom. 3:23 where the truth of Man's condition is stated. Therefore, the Bible is infallible.

For more information on Scripture, click here.


In conclusion, we can see that the Bible itself attests to its own inerrancy and infallibility. Thus, the inerrancy and infallibility of the Bible can be and will be assumed a priori in this section. The only way anyone can deny these two principles is to assume a different starting points, which I will show for different starting points in the apologetics section to be either self-contradictory or does not conform to reality as much as the Christian worldview, which is based on this axiom.