There are three distinct biblical qualifiers to dtermine whether baptism is scriptural. History shows that true Baptists have always practiced baptism by the mode of immersion and that the only proper candidate for baptism was an individual that had already placed his or her faith in the Lord Jesus Christ for salvation. The proper authority to administer baptism being the local independant church.
John refused baptism to the unrepentant in Matthew 3:1-8. Without the fruits of repentance the Pharisees could not receive scriptural baptism. Shouldn't we also insist on a barn-again candidate for the waters of baptism ?
No one in the bible practiced sprinkling or pouring as a mode of baptism. The biblical accounts always refer to an act of immersion. They always involved both individuals going down into a body of water. Neither were any infant baptisms recorded in the scriptures. Infant baptism is a by-product of the false teaching of baptismal regeneration. The bible says in Romans 6:4 that we are "BURIED" in baptism. You don't bury someone by sprinkling a little dirt over them.
Jesus was immersed by John the Baptist in Matthew chapter 3 verses 13-17. Note the reference to Jesus coming "up straightway out of the water".
If another mode could be used then John 3:23 is rendered senseless. It says "And John also was baptizing in Aenon near to Salim, BECAUSE there was much water there:".
DO YOU HAVE SCRIPTURAL BAPTISM ?
