The Trinity on Trial An in-depth examination of a doctrine

40 Critical Questions


  • Why do Trinitarian apologists no longer appeal to their favorite proof-text, 1 John 5:7? Is it because everyday people are now aware this verse is proven to be completely fraudulent?


  • If the doctrine of the Trinity is so fundamental to Christianity, as Trinitarians claim, why is there a complete failure on the part of Jesus and his apostles to articulate it anywhere?


  • Why do Trinitarian apologists fail to mention their defender Athanasius believed "God became man so that men might become gods."


  • Why do Trinitarians refuse to translate the Hebrew word EL as "mighty" or "power" at Isaiah 9:6 but insist upon translating the exact same word as "mighty" when it refers King Nebuchadnezzar, and when it refers to other men, mountains, and trees?


  • If a three person God exists, why is this three person God never once mentioned anywhere in the entire Bible but is instead imagined into selected verses of the Bible?


  • Why do Trinitarians suggestively imply the early Christian Justin Martyr had Trinitarian beliefs but refrain from disclosing that he declared Jesus was "another god" who was subject to "the most true God"?


  • Why do so many Trinitarians continue to quote the "God was manifested in the flesh" rendering of 1 Timothy 3:16 when they know very well their own scholars admit it is a scribal error that should read "who/which was manifested in flesh"?


  • Why do Trinitarian translations and interpretations have such a suspicious character about them?


  • Why do Trinitarians suggestively imply the early Christian Irenaeus had Trinitarian beliefs but refrain from disclosing that he repeatedly insisted the Father alone was the only true God?


  • Why do Trinitarians deny the "Lord" of 2 Corinthians 3:17 is to be identified as Jesus when the context demands it is most certainly a reference to Jesus? Is it because their doctrine asserts that Jesus is not the Spirit?


  • Why do Trinitarians suggestively imply the early Christian Tertullian had Trinitarian beliefs but refrain from disclosing that he declared the Son was inferior to the Father and also insisted there was a time when the Son was not?


  • Why do Trinitarians deny the words of Deuteronomy 32:39, "there is no God besides ME" where the speaker is identifed in verse 6 as God the Father?


  • Why does the Trinitarian three person God mislead his people by using the singular personal pronouns "I" and "ME"?


  • Why do Trinitarians suggest the term "God with us" at Matthew 1:23 indicates God was with his people geographically when the evidence indicates it means God was with them in plan and purpose?


  • When asked why their three person God refers to himself as "I" and "Me," why do Trinitarians refuse to define the word "being" which they use in their response?


  • Why do Trinitarians continue to quote the early Christian Ignatius when many textual critics are convinced that all of the Ignatian recensions have been corrupted? Do they simply deny what does not suit them?


  • Why do Trinitarians suggest the Pharisees were correct to insist only God can forgive sins (Mark 2:7) when Jesus immediately proves them wrong?


  • How do Trinitarians expect anyone to believe the shema given by God to Israel, "The LORD our God the LORD is one" was intended to mean to the Jewish people "the Lord is one substance" or "the LORD is one trio"?


  • When the heresies of Modalism and Arianism erupted in the early church, why did not anyone simply appeal to the apostolic teaching that the one God is three persons, if indeed such a teaching existed as Trinitarians like to pretend?


  • Why do Trinitarians dishonestly suggest Jesus' words at John 8:58, "Before Abraham was, I am" were an intentional unique language style implemented by Jesus to specifically refer to the divine name when the blind man in the very next chapter uses the exact same two words, "I AM" to identify himself?


  • Why do Trinitarians deny the person who conceived Jesus is his Father? Is it because they insist the Holy Spirit is a separate person from the Father and the Bible says the Holy Spirit conceived Jesus?


  • Why do Trinitarians misrepresent the facts of history by claiming the Trinity issue was settled at the Council of Nicea when Arians had almost won the day 40 years later? And why do they fail to mention the Arian controversy was really ended politically by a decree of Emperor Theodosius 55 years after Nicea?


  • Why do Trinitarians suggest the words "I and the Father are one" at John 10:30 mean "I and the Father are one God," or some similar idea, when the context indicates he meant one in plan and purpose and also in light of the glaring fact that Jesus later prays to the Father for his disciples to be one with him and the Father, "just as we are one."


  • Why do Trinitarians continue to claim Jesus was omniscient when he not only declared he did not know the day nor hour of his return, but even more specifically declared that only his Father knew the day and hour? Moreover, how do Trinitarians explain that only the Father knew the day and hour but their third person Holy Spirit did not?


  • Why do Trinitarians fail to take John 12:45 and John 14:9 into consideration when interpreting John 20:28-29?


  • Why do Trinitarians desire to serve a three person God when Jesus served a one person God, his Father? And why did Jesus also indicate our God is the Father alone by saying, "I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God." Are we really expected to believe the ridiculous and claim Jesus' God was a three person being?


  • Why do Trinitarians refuse to acknowledge that Jesus is the "glory of our great God and Savior" at Titus 2:13 where Paul is talking about the exact same event mentioned by Matthew at Matthew 16:17?

  • Why do Trinitarians continue promoting the ridiculous claim that bowing down to anyone but God was understood by the characters of the Bible to be forbidden when there is plenty of Scriptural evidence which proves otherwise?


  • Why do Trinitarians try and claim that Jesus is "Yahweh of Hosts" (LORD of Hosts) at Isaiah 44:6 when the context clearly shows that "His Redeemer" is not a reference to Jesus but a reference to Yahweh as Jacob's redeemer? Why do they twist these obvious facts?


  • Why do Trinitarians continue to claim the Jews wanted to stone Jesus for claiming to be their God when they charged him with claiming to be the Son of their God?


  • Why do Trinitarians try to claim "the true God" of 1 John 5:20 is to be identified as Jesus when the preceding sentence is discussing "Him who is true" and who also happens to have a Son named Jesus?


  • Why do Trinitarians so often use two or more different definitions of the word "God" in their argumentation?


  • Why do Trinitarians declare the number of individuals of the "US" and "OUR" group at Genesis 1:26 to be three persons, no more, no less, without any evidence whatsoever? And why they refuse to consistently refer to God as "THEY" and "THEM"?


  • Why would God deceptively indicate in many ways to the Old Testament Jews that he was one person if indeed he was three persons all along?


  • Since the Bible says Jesus grew in wisdom and knowledge, and since Trinitarians say the person in question here is the second person of the Trinity, shall we conclude the second person of the Trinity forgot a few things when he "assumed human nature"?


  • Why do Trinitarians claim Jesus did miracles because he was God when the Scripture explicitly tells us that he was able to do miracles because he was empowered by the Spirit in which God had anointed him, the very same way his apostles did similar miracles.


  • Why do Trinitarians continue to cite Acts 20:28 when they know very well that ancient manuscripts and early church testimony have Acts 20:28 as "Church of the Lord" and not "Church of God."


  • Why do the Scriptures teach that Jesus came to show the Father to us and do not teach that Jesus came to show the Triune God to us?


  • Why do Trinitarians use an English convention that misleads readers into thinking John intended to indicate who the Word was at John 1:1 rather than what the Word was when their own scholars insist the latter is what John intended?


  • Why did Jesus say, "Father... this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you sent" instead of "Father... this is eternal life, that they may know Us, the only true God."?


  • Just who was that dead body of flesh in the tomb?
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