Couverture de base par un put
Le but est de protéger en globalité son portefeuille d'une valeur de 20 000 euros.
On prendra un put sur un indice ressemblant à la structure du portefeuille à protéger qui est conservé jusqu'à son terme.
Vous anticipez une période de turbulences pour les 3 prochains mois.
Votre portefeuille a une structure proche de celle du CAC 40 (à 6 000 points) ou suit globalement son évolution.
Première solution, vendre l'ensemble de son portefeuille dont le coût n'est pas neutre (impôts, frais courtage).
Seconde solution, acheter de puts warrants ou Monep sur CAC 40.
Choix du warrant : un put à parité (prix d'exercice proche de l'indice à ce moment) avec une durée restant avant l'échéance
égale à la période de couverture souhaitée (3 mois ici).
Nombre de puts à acheter = (valeur du portefeuille / valeur de l'indice) / parité de conversion.
Exemple : avec une parité de 500 warrants pour 1 CAC (soit 0.002) cela implique l'achat de 1667 puts [(20000/6000)/0.002].
Mais les warrants s'achètent avec une quotité de 100 ou 500 la plupart du temps. Disons 100 en quotité donc achat de 1 700 puts.
Sachant que le prix du put warrant est d'un euro, vous devez débourser 1 700 euros.
A l'échéance le CAC a effectivement baissé de 20 % comme votre portefeuille.
Votre perte sur le portefeuille est de 4 000 euros.
Vos puts warrants se sont valorisés, ils valent actuellement 3 euros soit un total de 5 100 euros.
Votre gain est 3 400 euros ce qui compense en grande partie la perte sur votre portefeuille.
Protection dynamique
La protection permanente de votre portefeuille revient à un achat de put en dehors de la monnaie avec une échéance assez éloignée
ou correspondant à votre horizon de gestion. Pour cela il faut rajouter au calcul précédent le fameux delta (voir la fiche sur les warrants).
Nombre de puts à acheter = (valeur du portefeuille / valeur de l'indice) / (parité de conversion * delta en %).
Ce type de protection qui permet de neutraliser les fluctuations de marché est à utiliser sur une durée courte.
La stabilité du marché est l'ennemi de cette stratégie.
Vente de calls
Cette stratégie peu risquée est seulement utilisable avec le MONEP. L'anticipation est d'une stabilité du marché ou d'un léger effritement.
Le but est de se protéger contre cette éventualité (légère baisse) en se faisant un peu de cash.
Il faut prendre une option légèrement en dehors de la monnaie. Il faut vendre plus que la taille de son portefeuille soit 8 (50000/6000).
Pour pallier au pire (krack)
Cette stratégie consiste à acheter un put nettement en dehors de la monnaie. L'anticipation sur l'orientation du marché est positive
cependant rien ne peut empêcher une forte chute globale du marché.
Couverture d'une vente à découvert
Suite à une vente à découvert de titres avec le SRD, la hausse du marché est redoutée. Il suffit d'acheter des calls.
Stratégie ayant peu d'intérêt qui peut être remplacée par des ordres de rachat à seuil de déclenchement.
Extraction de liquidités ou cash extraction
L'idée est simple : remplacer une position en actions par une position en options ou warrants.
Anticipation : poursuite possible de la hausse de l'action.
Le montant à mobiliser pour remplacer le portefeuille en cash par un portefeuille optionnel étant plus faible,
le solde constituera de la liquidité. C'est stratégie doit être utilisée quand vous hésitez sur la prise de vos bénéfices.
Il est possible de prendre en compte ou pas le delta de l'option, dans ce dernier cas la reproduction du portefeuille n'est que partielle.
Second dividende
C'est une vente couverte de calls. Je vends des calls (stratégie très risquée en autonome) sur des actions en portefeuille.
L'anticipation est une stabilité du cours à court terme avec des perspectives de long terme favorables.
Pour résumer c'est une vente de valeur temps qui a diminué entre le moment de la vente et celui de l'achat.
Jouer la hausse sans risque
C'est une stratégie de type OPCVM à capital garanti.
La base du portefeuille est une ligne d'obligations d'état que l'on gardera jusqu'à l'échéance, impliquant une
rémunération connue à l'avance.
Le coupon attendu est alors investi dans des instruments à effet de levier type option ou warrant
d'horizon proche de l'échéance de la ligne d'obligations.
Vente couverte de puts
C'est un peu comme la vente couverte de calls où l'on profite de l'érosion de la valeur temps.
L'anticipation est une surrévaluation ou l'arrivée à un point haut d'une action.
Combinaison put / call
Ventes couvertes combinées de calls (à prix d'exercice élevé) et de puts (à prix d'exercice légèrement en dessous du cours actuel).
L'anticipation est d'un bon potentiel de l'action à long terme mais d'arrivée dans une zone de flottement à cours terme.
L'idée est de pouvoir racheter à bon compte d'autres actions si les cours venaient à baisser. Si les cours montent
vous serez obligé de vendre vos actions mais à un très bon prix.
L'inconvénient de la stratégie, c'est qu'en cas de baisse l'action support deviendra surpondérée dans votre portefeuille.
Stratégie de base
Achat d'un call lors d'une anticipation de hausse du sous-jacent.
Achat d'un put lors d'une anticipation de baisse du sous-jacent.
Dans ces deux cas, le risque se limite à la perte de la prime payée au départ.
Combinaison et stellage
L'anticipation est d'une forte volatilité des cours sans pouvoir donner une orientation précise à la baisse ou à la hausse de la valeur.
Ce sont les stratégies idéales du second semestre 2000. Nous parlons d'achat de la stratégie.
Le stellage (ou straddle) : achat simultané d'un call et d'un put de même échéance et de même prix d'exercice.
La combinaison (ou strangle) : achat simultané d'un call et d'un put de même échéance et de prix d'exercice différents.
La hausse d'une des deux options (sans plafond) doit pouvoir couvrir le coût d'acuqisition de l'autre option
dont le prix évolue dans le sens inverse avec un seuil à 0.
La vente de ces stratégies (uniquement sur Monep) implique une anticipation d'une forte stabilité des cours.
Tunnel (Monep uniquement)
Le principe est de financer (partiellement) l'achat d'une option par la vente d'une option de sens contraire.
Tunnel haussier (achat à terme) : achat call et vente de put. L'anticipation est d'une hausse de l'action.
Tunnel baissier (vente à terme) : vente call et achat de put. L'anticipation est d'une baisse de l'action.
Attention les opérations sur indices impliquent d'avoir les liquidités en cas d'exercice.
Spread et ratio
L'anticipation est d'une évolution limitée des cours.
Le spread : achat et vente de call à des prix d'exercice différents.
Jouer la hausse = achat call prix exercice inférieur au prix d'exercice du call vendu.
Le gain est limité à la différence de prix d'exercice moins la différence de coût des supports.
La perte est limitée à la différence de prime en cas de baisse du cours.
Jouer la baisse se fait avec des puts.
Le ratio : 3 calls (2 vendus et 1 acheté) sont pris. Le prix de revient de la stratégie est encore plus faible voire négatif.
Jouer la hausse = achat d'un call de prix exercice inférieur au prix d'exercice des deux calls vendus.
Le gain est maximal quand le prix du sous-jacent est égal au prix d'exercice des deux calls vendus.
Au delà de ce prix, le gain diminue jusqu'à se transformer en perte.
Acheteur de volatilité
L'investisseur est dans ce cas de figure acheteur à la fois de call et de put d'échéance, et de prix d'exercice identique.
En cas de hausse du marché, il gagnera la hausse illimitée du call en contrepartie de la perte du premium sur le put.
En cas de baisse, il perdra le premium du call contre une hausse illimitée du put.
Le problème de cet investissement réside dans la stabilité du sous jacent.
Si ce dernier reste stable, l'investisseur perd les deux primes sur le call et le put.
L'investisseur souhaite du mouvement quelqu'en soit le sens.
Acheteur de volatilité couvert
On reprend la stratégie précédente mais on ajoute la vente d'un call et d'un put hors de la monnaie
(montant des premiums inférieurs aux montants des premiums achetés des deux premiers).
Ceci permet de réduire le montant de la perte maximale grâce au montant des premiums encaissés lors de la vente.
En contrepartie, les plus-values enregistrées seront plafonnées en cas de variation.
Vendeur de volatilité
L'investisseur souhaite jouer la stabilité des cours en vendant à la fois un put et un call de même échéance,
de même nature et de même prix d'exercice.
Ainsi en cas de stabilité du marché, il empoche les deux premiums.
Dans le cas contraire, ses pertes sont illimitées (montant déduit des deux premiums encaissés).
Stratégie très risquée car les pertessont illimitées.
Vendeur de volatilité couvert
Afin de limiter son risque de pertes de la stratégie ci-dessus,
l'investisseur achète des calls et des puts pour un montant inférieur aux premiums encaissés
(prix d'exercice ou date d'échéance différente). En contrepartie, il perd une partie des plus-values potentielles.
Covered Call Example:
You own 100 shares of the DIAMONDS (DIA), for which you paid 96.25, with DIAMONDS currently trading at 103. You have a long-term bullish outlook on the DIAMONDS, but you are concerned that short-term performance may lag. You wish to partially protect your unrealized profit, and generate income. DIAMONDS have a 52-week high of 113.64 and a 52-week low of 79.50.
Outlook:
You are neutral to moderately bullish in the short term, looking to outperform in a flat market. You expect DIAMONDS to have strong returns after one fiscal quarter (3 months), but are willing to sell at 110.
Possible Strategy: Covered Call.
Hold onto your DIAMONDS position.
Sell 1 DIA September 105 call at 5.10 against it.
Out-of-the-Money Call Spread
Example:
XYZ is at 128.75 and has been in a narrow range the last several weeks.
Outlook:
You are neutral to moderately bearish on XYZ through the end of the year, but are looking for a trade that will produce a credit.
Possible Strategy: Short out-of-the-money Call Spread.
Sell 1 September 140 Call at 6.50.
Buy 1 September 145 Call at 5.25.
Net credit of 1.25 or $125.00.
Buying Puts vs. Shorting Stock
Example:
XYZ is at 47, down 3 points this week after posting a 50% reduction from last quarter's earnings due to instability in foreign markets.
Outlook:
Expect earnings to continue to slide for remainder of the year while XYZ unwinds operations in unstable countries and refocuses domestically.
Possible Strategy:
Buy a put as an alternative to shorting stock.
In-the-Money OEX Spread
Example:
The S&P 100® Index (OEX) is at a level of 530.00.
Outlook:
You are bullish on the broad marketplace through July expiration, and want to profit fast on an increase.
Possible Strategy:
Bull Call Spread.
Buy 1 July 525 call at 23.25.
Sell 1 July 540 call at 13.25.
Net Debit of 10 or $1,000.00.
Zero cost collar
Example:
XYZ is at 61.75. You are holding 100 shares.
Outlook:
You are moderately bullish on XYZ, but are concerned about market volatility decreasing the value of your holding in the short term. You want to lock in downside protection, but buying puts would be costly. You are willing to accept a cap on upside.
Possible Strategy:
Zero Cost Collar.
Buy 1 XYZ September 55 put at 4.25.
Sell 1 XYZ September 70 call at 4.25.
Net credit of 0.00.
XYZ is at 88.75 and just made a very positive earnings announcement.
Outlook:
You are bullish on XYZ for the mid-term (next six months) and want to establish an option position that will very closely mimic the stock movements (high delta).
Possible Strategy:
Bull-Spread.
Buy 1 December 80 call at 15.75.
Sell 1 December 95 call at 7.50.
Net cost of 8.25 or $825.00.
Taking Hold of the DJX
Example:
The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) has seen some large swings in the past three weeks. The CBOE lists Options on the DOW (DJX) which track the DJIA on a 1/100 basis. (i.e.: DJIA 10,000 = DJX 100). The DJX is presently at a level of 91.00 (DJIA=9,100).
Outlook:
You believe the DJX will continue to be volatile through the end of the year, but you are unsure of direction. You want to take a position that may profit if the DJX moves significantly up or down
Possible Strategy:
Strangle.
Buy 1 DJX January 2003 95 call at 4.
Buy 1 DJX January 2003 85 put at 3.25.
Net debit of 7.25, or $725.00
Covered Write
Example:
XYZ is at 33.25 and pays a $10.00 dividend on 9/05/02 to holders of record on 8/15/02.
Outlook:
You believe XYZ will trade in a narrow range around 35 between now and September expiration.
Possible Strategy:
Covered-Write.
Buy 100 shares of XYZ at 33.25.
Sell 1 September 35 call at 1.50.
The net cost is 31.75 ($3,175.00) for the position.
Low Cost Collar
Example:
ZYX, a major financial services company, closed today at 56.50. You buy 100 shares of ZYX at the closing price.
Outlook:
You are bullish on ZYX, however you believe that the erratic economy may adversely affect your position.
You want to preserve the value of your ZYX investment at little or no cost.
Possible Strategy:
ZYX Collar.
Buy one December ZYX 55 Put at 9.50.
Sell one December ZYX 65 Call at 9.40.
Total cost is 0.10, or $10.00 for the position.
Bullish outlook on the Nasdaq-100® Index
Example:
In this example, the Nasdaq 100 Index (NDX) is at a level of 1000.
Outlook:
You are neutral to bullish on the NDX over the next four weeks to September expiration.
Possible Strategy:
In-the-Money Bull Call Spread.
Buy 1 September 950 Call at 122.
Sell 1 September 975 Call at 110.
Net Debit of 12 or $1,200.00.
Protective Put
Example:
XYZ is at $47. You are long 100 shares as of last week and want to be in it for the long run. However, news has just been reported that earnings in the next quarter may show a slowdown.
Outlook:
Bullish on XYZ but concerned that with this latest report a sell-off of XYZ may be severe.
Possible Strategy:
Protective Put:
Buy 1 XYZ March 45 put at 4.50.
Net debit of 4.50 or $450.00.
Cash Secured Put Sale to Acquire Stock
Example:
You have $7,500 in an investment account that is unallocated at this time. XYZ is at $84 and has performed well this year.
Outlook:
You are bullish on XYZ, but think it is too expensive right now. You would be willing to buy it if it was at 10% less then its present level.
Possible Strategy:
Cash-Secured Put Sale:
Sell 1 XYZ February 77.50 put at 2.25 ($225.00).
If assigned, you will acquire XYZ at a cost basis of 75.25 (strike - premium).
Options Institute Corner
Market Indicators
Question:
What does the put to call ratio indicate?
Answer:
Some traders believe that the Put-Call ratio is a measure of market sentiment. It is also believed to be a contrary
indicator.
The theory is that, if too many calls are being purchased, market sentiment is too bullish.
This leads some to predict that a market decline is imminent. On the other side, if too many puts are being purchased,
then market is too bearish. Consequently, some will predict that a market rise is imminent.
What is "too many calls" or "too many puts"? This is the subject of many debates. Some traders believe that if the 10-day
volume of puts is 120% (1.20) of the 10-day volume of calls, then this is "too many puts." This might lead them to predict
a rise in the market. Some traders believe that when the 10-day volume of puts is only 40% (0.40) of the 10-day volume
of calls, then this is "too many calls." This might lead them to predict a fall in the market.
Please be aware that the Put-Call ratio is not a guaranteed predictor of future market action. There are many debates
about what is too high or too low a ratio. Furthermore, many market pundits question whether it has any value at all.
At best, the Put-Call Ratio is only one of many market indicators that can be used in a subjective way to make market
predictions.
Bear Put Spread
Example:
XYZ is at $66. Earnings will be announced next week and the outlook is not good.
Outlook:
You are bearish on XYZ through the end of 2002.
Possible Strategy:
Bear Put Spread:
Buy 1 XYZ December 65 put at 3.50.
Sell 1 XYZ December 60 put at 1.25.
Net debit of 2.25 or $225.00.
DJX Bull Spread
Example:
The market climbed Friday following several days of sell-off, ending with the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) at
a level of 8,600. Options on the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJX) are at a level of 86.00.
Outlook:
You are Bullish on the DJX for the autumn and believe the market may gain 5% - 10% in that time.
Possible Strategy:
Bull Call Spread.
Buy 1 DJX December 86 call at 5.25.
Sell 1 DJX December 94 call at 1.50.
Net debit of 3.75, or $375.00.
Option Price Behavior
Question:
If a stock moves up, why are the call options sometimes negative?
Answer:
Options prices are determined by several factors, including the stock price, the time to expiration, the distance from
the stock price to the options strike price and interest rates and dividends.
It is possible that, when a stock price rises, it takes so long (in terms of time) that an out-of-the-money option will
lose more value from time erosion than it gains from the price rise in the underlying stock. For example, assume that the
price of a stock rises from $50 at 90 days before expiration to $58 on the expiration date. If this happens, the 60-strike
call will expire worthless, because it is still $2 out of the money.
For this reason, option users must include a time element in their forecast when choosing a strategy.
Short Put Spread
Example:
XYZ is at 126, up $0.75 today.
Outlook:
You are moderately bullish on XYZ, and are looking for a trade that will provide a net credit.
Possible Strategy:
Short Put Spread:
Sell 1 XYZ December 125 put at 5.75.
Buy 1 XYZ December 120 put at 4.25.
Net credit of 1.50 or $150.00.
DJX Bear Put Spread
Example:
The DJX, CBOE options on the Dow Jones Industrial Average, is at a level of 79.00. You fear that the market may sell off in the next 45 days due to instability in a certain critical global region.
Outlook:
You are Bearish on the DJX in the short term.
Possible Strategy:
Bear Put Spread:
Buy 1 DJX November 78 put at 3.75.
Sell 1 DJX November 74 put at 2.50.
Net debit of 1.25, or $125.00.
Opening and Closing Transactions
Question:
When you buy a put option, you have the right to exercise it or "to close it". What does it mean to "Buy put open"
and "Buy put close"? I thought that "close it" is something you do at/before expiration.
Answer:
There are three potential outcomes to the purchase of an option: closing the position, exercising or letting the option
expire. Remember that an option position can be bought and sold at anytime prior to expiration. Below are the definitions of
opening and closing transactions.
Opening transaction: An addition to, or creation of, a trading position. An opening purchase transaction adds long options
to an investor's total position, and an opening sales transaction adds short options. An opening option transaction
increases that option's open interest.
Closing transaction: A reduction or an elimination of an open position by the appropriate offsetting purchase or sale.
An existing long option position is closed by a selling transaction. An existing short option position is closed by a
purchase transaction. This transaction will reduce the open interest for the specific option involved.
Risk-Managed Investing on Stock Pullback
Example:
Stock CAB has had a tremendous up move in the last 6 months, from a split-adjusted $106 to $142.
Lately the stock has pulled back to $123, where you would like to buy. You would also like a bit of protection.
Outlook:
You believe that the stock will stay in a range of $115-130 for the next 4 months; you would sell if it reached
$135 within that time frame.
Possible Strategy:
Covered write.
Buy 100 shares at $123.
Sell 1 February 130 call at $8.
Put/Call Ratio?
Question:
What does the put to call ratio indicate?
Answer:
Some traders believe that the Put-Call ratio is a measure of market sentiment. It is also believed to be a contrary indicator.
The theory is that, if too many calls are being purchased, market sentiment is too bullish. This leads some to predict that a market decline is imminent. On the other side, if too many puts are being purchased, then market is too bearish. Consequently, some will predict that a market rise is imminent.
What is "too many calls" or "too many puts"? This is the subject of many debates. Some traders believe that if the 10-day volume of puts is 120% (1.20) of the 10-day volume of calls, then this is "too many puts." This might lead them to predict a rise in the market. Some traders believe that when the 10-day volume of puts is only 40% (0.40) of the 10-day volume of calls, then this is "too many calls." This might lead them to predict a fall in the market.
Please be aware that the Put-Call ratio is not a guaranteed predictor of future market action. There are many debates about what is too high or too low a ratio. Furthermore, many market pundits question whether it has any value at all. At best, the Put-Call Ratio is only one of many market indicators that can be used in a subjective way to make market predictions.
Synthetic Stock
Example:
XYZ is at $13.75. This stock is a relatively new listing, but is a strong competitor in its industry.
Outlook:
Bullish on XYZ. You are expecting a 15% increase in the stock over the next six months as news of its industry position comes out. You want to establish a large (1,000 share) position over the short-term, but do not want to pay $13,750 capital cost at onset. You also want to keep as much upside as possible, and are willing to accept downside risk of stock.
Possible Strategy: Synthetic Stock.
Buy 10 March 12.50 calls at 2.25.
Sell 10 March 12.50 puts at 1.25.
Debit of $1 x 10 contracts or $1,000.
Simultaneous Stock Purchase and Call Sale
Example:
XYZ is at 33.25 and pays a $10.00 dividend on 11/15/02 to holders of record on 10/25/02.
Outlook:
You believe XYZ will trade in a narrow range around 35 between now and December expiration.
Possible Strategy:
Covered write.
Buy 100 shares of XYZ at 33.25.
Sell 1 December 35 call at 1.50.
The net cost is 31.75 ($3,175.00) for the position.
Risk-Managed Investing on Stock Pullback
Example:
Stock CAB has had a tremendous up move in the last 6 months, from a split-adjusted $106 to $142. Lately the stock has pulled back to $123, where you would like to buy. You would also like a bit of protection.
Outlook:
You believe that the stock will stay in a range of $115-130 for the next 4 months; you would sell if it reached $135 within that time frame.
Possible Strategy:
Covered write.
Buy 100 shares at $123.
Sell 1 February 130 call at $8.
Open Interest Explained
Question:
What is open interest?
Answer:
The definition, "the total number of existing option contracts," is rather vague. In order to understand it, you must also understand that there are four types of trades that affect open interest, regardless of the type of contract (call or put): a buy to open a position, a buy to close, a sell to open and a sell to close. "Paired" together, these numbers work similarly to a number line, with particular combinations being positive or negative variables, as the table below demonstrates. Call and put options are calculated separately, and are not paired against each other.
Buy Sell Open Interest
To open to open 1
To open to close no change
To close to open no change
To close to close -1
*This example assumes there is only one contract in the trade.
It is after the close of trading that each trade in each class or series of options is "paired together" to determine that day's open interest. The aspect of this concept that most investors find confusing is that volume and open interest do not have a 1 to 1 relationship. That is to say, open interest does not rise for each contract purchased, nor does it fall for each contract sold. It is the combination of purchases and sales, as well as if these trades are opening or closing a position, that ultimately determines the open interest number.
Same Day Substitution
Question:
Please explain "same day substitution" as to when it can take place and what are the related expenses.
Answer:
You own 100 shares of XYZ trading at $45 per share. Your cost basis is low, let's say $5 per share. You sell the 50 call for $1 (bringing in $100 before transaction costs). The stock rallies to $53. You are notified by your broker on the TUESDAY morning before expiration Friday that you were assigned (usually a commission for exercise or assignment). You must deliver 100 shares of XYZ on THURSDAY (The assignment technically took place MONDAY EVENING at The Options Clearing Corporation in Chicago).
You decide that you do not want to deliver the $5 stock you currently own. If you purchase 100 share today Tuesday, you will not take delivery until Friday, one day past the date you need to deliver the stock on. Buy 100 shares (additional commission) with 1-day settlement (your broker may refer to this as "special way" but check with them). On Wednesday you have 200 shares in your account - the original 100 shares with a $5 cost and the second 100 shares with a $53 cost.
Same day substitution is a little commission intensive but that may be preferable to delivering stock with a low cost basis and paying taxes
OIQ
How well do you know your options? Take our quiz to find out.
Answers are at the bottom of the newsletter.
1. With a stock price of $68, a 60-strike call will have a minimum value of:
a. 0
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10
2. If you sell an option, the most you have at risk is the premium received?
a. True
b. False
3. If the price of XYZ stock rises from $50 to $51 today (no change in time):
a. The price of the XYZ 50 Call should rise by approximately $1.
b. The price of the XYZ 50 Call should rise by approximately 50 cents.
c. The price of the XYZ 50 Call should rise by approximately 25 cents.
d. The price of the XYZ 50 Call should rise by slightly more than $1.
4. XYZ Stock closed at $89 on the Friday of expiration. You had the following position:
Long 1 XYZ 85 Call
Short 1 XYZ 90 Call
On Monday, what is your new position?
a. No position
b. Long 100 shares of XYZ stock.
c. Short 100 shares of XYZ stock
d. $400 in cash.
5. You have the following position:
Long 1 XYZ 60 Put
Short 2 XYZ 55 Puts
XYZ closes at $48 on Friday of expiration. On Monday, what is your new position?
a. $700 deducted from your account.
b. Long 100 shares of XYZ stock.
c. No Position
d. Short 100 shares of XYZ stock.
OIQ Answers
The answers to this week's Options Quiz are: 1-C, 2-B, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B.
How did you do on the quiz? Are you looking to increase your options knowledge? Our experts at the Options Institute recommend the following:
Question:How are call options treated when a stock splits?
Answer:
Essentially, when a stock splits, the option also splits. There are, however, a number of ways that a stock can split, 2-for-1, 3-for-2, etc. If a stock, currently trading at $60 split 2-for-1, then the options on that stock also split 2-for-1. The pre-split owner of one 60-call gets two 30-calls post-split.
In the case of 3-for-2 splits, the post-split options cover 150 shares instead of 100 shares. So, if a $90 stock splits 3-for-2, then the pre-split owner of one 90-call gets one 60-call on 150 shares.
The concept is that the "aggregate exercise value" remains the same. If you have the right to buy $9,000 of stock before a split ($90 x 100), then you still have the right to buy $9,000 after the split ($60 x 150).
In the case of special splits or spin-offs, the same rule is applied on a case-by-case basis
90/10 Bullish DJX Strategy
Situation:
The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIAsm) is hypothetically at a level of 7800 (DJX = 78.00). You have a small investment account ($6,000.00) and are interested in investing in the component stocks of the DJIA.
Outlook:
In this example, DJX may increase over the next six months but you have too little to buy all 30 stocks and you don't want to risk all your money.
Possible strategy: 90/10 Strategy
Buy 1 DJX April 78 call at 6 (10% of capital).
Invest the remaining $5,400 (90% of capital) in T-Bills paying 1.20%, with the intention of holding the T-Bills until maturity.
GREEKS of B&S
Delta: First in a Five Part Series
Delta is the measure of an option's sensitivity to changes in the price of the underlying asset. Therefore, it is the degree to which an option price will move given a change in the underlying stock or index price, all else being equal.
Far out-of-the-money calls will have a delta very close to zero, as the change in underlying price is not likely to impact their value significantly. An at-the-money call would have a delta of 0.50 (50%) and a deep in-the-money call would have a delta close to 1 (100%).
While call deltas are positive, put deltas are negative, reflecting the fact that the put option price and the underlying stock price are inversely related. Therefore, far out-of-the-money puts will have a delta close to zero; an at-the-money put will have a delta of -0.50 (-50%), and a deep in-the-money put will have a delta at or close to -1 (-100%).
The tables below illustrate how the change in prices of a 60-strike call and a 60-strike put correspond to the deltas as the stock price rises from $55 to $56 and other factors remain constant.
| Call Option | Change | Put Option | Change |
| Underlying Price | 50 | 51 | 1 |
| Underlying Price | 50 | 49 | 1 |
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy: Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Strategy Discussion
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Options Institute Corner
Question:
Answer:
Each of these strategies has its own advantages and disadvantages, therefore it is necessary to know what your hedging objective and time frame are before you choose one of these strategies.
Strategy Discussion
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Strategy Discussion
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Strategy Discussion
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Question:
Answer:
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Options Institute Corner
Question:
Answer:
January Cycle - January, April, July, October
February Cycle - February, May, August, November
March Cycle - March, June, September, December
The cycle a stock is assigned to determines what months are available. The first of the four months is called the "front month" or "spot month." On expiration day, the then current front month is replaced with a new month -- either the second month forward if it doesn't already exist or the next appropriate month from the cycle's predefined list.
For example, IBM has been assigned to the January Cycle. If this were September 1, IBM would have the following option months available: September, October, January and April. JDS Uniphase has been assigned to the March Cycle. It has the following months available: September, October, December and March. For select stocks, additional months may be available 24 to 36 months out. These are called LEAPS Options.
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Options Institute Corner
Question:
Answer:
If ABC acquires XYZ in a cash merger where each holder of XYZ stock receives $45 per share effective in November and you hold 1 January 45 call option, what will be the effect on the January 45 call option?
Typically, existing open interest will remain open until the options are exercised or expire. Cash merger settlement of options will typically be accomplished by payment of the difference between the strike price and the cash deliverable. In the case of the XYZ calls, all options will be adjusted to reflect the new deliverable price of $4,500 ($45 (merger price) x 100 (multiplier)). For example, January 45 calls will be adjusted to reflect the difference between the strike price, $45, and the cash deliverable per share, $45, giving you a contract value of $0 (($45-$45) x 100).
What happens to the January XYZ 40 call? January 40 calls will be adjusted to reflect the difference between the strike price, $40, and the cash deliverable per share, $45, giving you a contract value of $500 (($45-$40) x 100).
What happens to the January XYZ 50 call? January 50 calls will be adjusted to reflect the difference between the strike price, $50, and the cash deliverable per share, $45, giving you a contract value of $0 (($45-$50) x 100). The absolute value of calls above the $45 strike will be $0.
Please contact your broker or check the "Splits and Mergers" portion of the CBOE website for the terms and adjustments of each new merger, stock split, etc.
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Options Institute Corner
- Degrees of Risk
Question:
Answer:
Naked (uncovered) option: A short option position that is not fully collateralized if notification of assignment is received. A short call position is uncovered if the writer does not have a corresponding long stock or long call position. This strategy has unlimited risk, less the premium brought in by the sale of the call. For example, short 1 XYZ Aug 55 call @ 3.
Short straddle: A trading position involving puts and calls on a one-to-one basis in which the puts and calls have the same strike price, expiration, and underlying stock. A short straddle is when both options are written. This strategy has unlimited risk, less the combined premiums brought in by the sale of the call and put. For example, short 1 XYZ Aug 55 call @ 3, and short 1 Aug 55 put @ 2.
Short butterfly spread: A strategy involving four options and three strike prices that has both limited risk and limited profit potential. A short call butterfly is established by selling one call at the lowest strike price, buying two calls at the middle strike price, and selling one call at the highest strike price. For example, a short call butterfly might be short 1 XYZ Aug 55 call @ 6.10, buying 2 XYZ Aug 60 calls @ 4.10, and short 1 XYZ Aug 65 call @ 2.35.
After evaluating each strategy, we have determined that selling naked calls is the riskiest strategy. The reason is we only have one premium to offset the unlimited upside risk. The short straddle also has unlimited risk, but has two premiums to offset the risk. Finally, the short butterfly has limited risk due to the combination of offsetting short and long calls.
Discover more strategies at the CBOE Online Learning Center. Click here to learn more.
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Strategy Discussion
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Options Institute Corner
- Top Ten Questions and Answers
Question:
Answer:
Question:
Answer:
Question:
Answer:
When you sell an option, you now have the obligation to sell or purchase stock. You have or may not have to fulfill that obligation. You are considered to be "assigned" if you are being required to fulfill that obligation. Typically, this occurs when the option is in-the-money.
Question:
Answer:
Question:
Answer:
Question:
Answer:
Question:
Answer:
Question:
Answer:
Question:
Answer:
Question:
Answer:
Situation: Outlook: Possible strategy:
Strategy Discussion
Bullish Forecast on a Volatile Stock
High Volatility Stock (VOL) is at $186. You are bullish with June time horizon.
Bullish, but hesitant to buy options outright as premiums are high due to volatility.
Bull spread:
Strategy Discussion
High Delta Bull Spread
XYZ is at 88.75 and just made a very positive earnings announcement.
You are bullish on XYZ for the mid-term (next six months), and want to establish an option position that will very closely mimic the stock movements (high delta).
Bull-Spread:
Strategy Discussion
Bearish Outlook with Limited Risk
Topping Out Stock (TOS) is currently at 82.25, with a 52-week high of 89 and a 52-week low of 53.25.
Bearish, seeing downside of approximately 10% over the next 4 months; looking to limit risk.
Bear Put Spread:
Strategy Discussion
Simultaneous Stock Purchase and Call Sale
XYZ is at 33.25 and pays a $10.00 dividend on 5/15/03 to holders of record on 4/10/03.
You believe XYZ will trade in a narrow range around 35 between now and May expiration.
Covered-Write.
Turnaround Corp. (TND) has bounced off a 52-week low to close at $36.50.
You are bullish and believe TND stock could return as much as 10% over the next 3 months. However, you are also risk averse and do not want to commit to a large investment.
Bull call Spread on TND.
Buy-Write (AKA: Covered Write, Covered Call Sale, Overwrite)
XYZ.com is at $40.50 and has been steady since a tech-related sell-off began a few weeks ago.
You are neutral to slightly bullish on XYZ.com for the short term, and believe that, while the technology sell-off appears to be over and XYZ.com shouldn't decline further, it will not recover within the next month.
Buy-Write:
XYZ is at $91 and you are long 100 shares.
You are bullish, but are concerned about a possible sell-off in the market because of the uncertain direction in interest rates. You believe the stock will not appreciate more than 15% over the next six months. You are willing to limit your profit to also limit loss.
Equity Collar:
Strategy Discussion
In-the-Money Call Spread
In this example, the Nasdaq-100® Index (NDX) is at a level of 1100.
You are neutral to bullish on the NDX until May expiration.
In-the-Money Bull Call Spread.
Puts on the Dow
The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) is at a level of 8,700. The CBOE lists options on the DJIA under the symbol DJX, which represents 1/100 of the index. Therefore, in this scenario, the DJX would be at a level of 87.00
You are Bearish on the DJX. You expect that the Federal Reserve may raise interest rates and the market may fall.
Bear Put Spread.
Hedging OEX
If we sell OEX calls, what do we buy if we want to hedge our position?
A position of short OEX calls can be hedged in three ways. First, you could buy the OEF, which is an ETF based on the OEX. Second, you could buy OEX calls with a different strike price. Third, you could sell OEX puts.
Limiting Risk on a Stock Position with no Cash Outlay
Big Bull Stock (BBS) is currently trading at $27.25, where you just bought 100 shares. It has a 52-week high of $58 and a 52-week low of $23.
Bullish on BBS over the next 18 months, but looking for low cost/no cost downside protection.
LEAPS Collar
OEX Bear Put Spread
The S&P 100 Index® (OEX) is at a level of 550. You believe that lower-than-expected summer spending could possibly cause the market to fall.
You are Bearish on the OEX in the short term.
Bear Put Spread.
Small Cap Bull Spread
CBOE lists options on the Russell 2000 Index® (RUT), representing 2,000 companies that are considered a benchmark of the U.S. small-capitalization market. In this example, RUT is at a level of 400.
You are bullish on small cap stocks for the rest of 2003. You believe they are undervalued in comparison to the broader marketplace and expect a 10% increase in the last half of the year. You want to establish a bullish position at a reduced cost with limited risk, and are willing to give up upside past 10%.
Call Spread.
What does it mean to "leg into" a position?
"Legging into" a position is a term describing trading into a position with two or more sides. When a trader legs into a spread, he or she establishes one side first; hoping for a favorable price movement so the other side can be executed at a better price. This is a higher-risk method of establishing a spread position because there is no guarantee of the price of the second side of the trade.
Strategy Discussion
Nasdaq Bull Spread
Some big-name Nasdaq stocks have seen stronger-than-usual price swings in the last few weeks. The Nasdaq-100 Index® (NDX), a modified- capitalization weighted index composed of 100 of the largest non-financial securities listed on the Nasdaq Stock Market, is at 1,350. CBOE lists options on NDX.
You are short term bullish on the NDX, but want to limit risk as well as establish a position across the Nasdaq market, and not in just one or two companies.
Bull Spread.
Could you please provide a simple definition of expiration months and an example?
For conventional equity options, there are always 2 near-term and 2 far-term expiration months available. The far term months are determined by the stocks quarterly expiration cycle. They are as follows:
Strategy Discussion
Bull Call Spread in a High Volatility Stock
XYZ is at $343. Calls on this stock are trading with extremely high (+100%) implied volatilities.
Bullish. Expecting at least a 10% increase in XYZ over the next 90 days, but unable to afford the premium or assume the risk of the XYZ at-the-money calls, which are priced at 75 ($7,500) each.
Bull Call Spread.
Splits & Mergers
What happens to a January 45 call option when the underlying company gets bought out in November for $45 per share?
Each merger, stock split, takeover, etc.are unique and may be different from the last. Here is one way a cash merger may affect existing open interest of a given stock.
Strategy Discussion
Synthetic Stock
XYZ is at $13.75. This stock is a relatively new listing, but is a strong competitor in its industry.
Bullish on XYZ. You are expecting a 15% increase in the stock over the next six months as news of its industry position comes out. You want to establish a large (1,000 share) position over the short-term, but do not want to pay $13,750 capital cost at onset. You also want to keep as much upside as possible, and are willing to accept downside risk of stock.
Synthetic Stock.
Could you discuss the risk level of the subject strategies? Would the risk of a short straddle or a short butterfly be higher than writing a naked call? If yes, could you give me some examples?
First, let's define the individual profiles of each strategy.
Strategy Discussion
Bull Call Spread
XYZ is at $102.50. A major Wall Street firm has just upped their rating on XYZ due to strong bullish opinions from their analysts.
Bullish on XYZ through the end of the year.
Bull Call Spread.
Cash Secured Put Sale to Acquire Stock
You have $7,500 in an investment account that is unallocated at this time. XYZ is at $84 and has performed well this year.
You are bullish on XYZ, but think it is too expensive right now. You would be willing to buy it if it was at 10% less then its present level.
Cash-Secured Put Sale:
1. What is the role of a market maker?
Market makers provide liquidity in option trading by risking their own capital for personal trading, and are the backbone of the CBOE's trading system. They take the opposite side of public orders by competing in an open outcry auction market. Floor brokers, on the other hand, act only as agents, executing orders for public or firm accounts.
2. Does a "specialist" buy and sell options?
Most option classes listed at the CBOE are traded in an open outcry system where certain members of the Exchange may trade as market makers. Market makers provide liquidity in option trading by risking their own capital for personal trading, and are the backbone of the CBOE's trading system. They take the opposite side of public orders by competing in an open outcry auction market. This differs from the trading environment on many other exchanges where "specialists" are allowed to accept orders from the public, to manage the public order book and to deal for their own accounts in the same securities.
3. What does it mean to be exercised or assigned on an option transaction?
When you buy an option, you have the right to either purchase or sell stock at a predetermined price. When and if you choose to purchase or sell stock at that predetermined price you are said to be " exercising your right".
4. What happens to my option if I do nothing?
If you bought a call or put you would lose the premium you paid for the option plus whatever commissions and fees incurred on that transaction. If you sold a call or a put and your option is in-the-money, you will most likely be assigned and you will have to sell or buy stock.
5. Is it possible to anticipate when I will be assigned?
You can anticipate being assigned any time your option becomes in the money. Individual investors may be automatically assigned or exercised at expiration by The Options Clearing Corporation if the option is 0.75 or more in the money. Also, most brokerage firms have rules under which options will be automatically exercised; check with your broker to determine which automatic exercise rule may apply.
6. What is a strike price and how are they determined?
A strike price is the actual numeric value of the option. For example, a May option may have strike prices of 45, 50 and 55. Strike prices are determined when the underlying reaches a certain numeric value and trades consistently at or above that value. If, for example, XYZ stock was trading at 49, hit a price of 50 and traded consistently at this level, the next highest strike may be added.
7. What happens to my order after I enter it with my broker?
Your order may take many routes depending on your broker and the firm that represents them on the floor. Most likely, it will be routed electronically to CBOE's Order Routing System (ORS). ORS is a network of communication lines from retail member firms computers that collect and route wire orders of up to 2,000 contracts to one of three trading floor locations: booth, crowd or CBOE's Order Book Official, based on price and volume parameters set by each member firm and CBOE. It is the access system to the Electronic Book (EB), Retail Automatic Execution System (RAES), and Floor Broker Routing (FBR).
8. Is there a difference between the reporting of last sales and the reporting of quotes?
Yes. The CBOE employs Price Reporters to manually enter the sell side of trades. The Price Reporter then keypunches this information into CBOE's audit trail system. A Quote Reporter is also employed by the CBOE and is responsible for standing in the trading pit and listening for the best bids and offers as they are yelled out in our "open outcry system".
9. What determines if LEAPS are available on a particular stock?
LEAPS trade on a select list of optionable stocks. Currently, LEAPS are available on about 10% of the stocks on which options are traded at the CBOE. The Chicago Board Options Exchange regularly reviews its options products and periodically lists new Equity LEAPS. An updated CBOE LEAPS list can be obtained by visiting the Symbol Directory located on CBOE.com by clicking here.
10. When do LEAPS expire? When can LEAPS be exercised?
As with equity options, the expiration date is the Saturday following the third Friday of the expiration month. All equity LEAPS contracts expire in the month of January. Equity options and Equity LEAPS are subject to "American style" exercise. This means the holder has the right to exercise the options on any business day prior to expiration.
Strategy Discussion
ECM Bull Call Spread
The CBOE Dow Jones Internet Commerce Index (ECM) is a modified capitalization weighted index of 15 of the largest companies providing goods and services through the Internet. In this example, the index is at a level of 76. The 12-month high for the ECM is 85.55, and the 12-month low is 29.20.
You are Bullish on Internet stocks over the next 90 days, and believe a 25% to 35% spike is likely.
Bull Call Spread.
|
Quelques
règles de bon sens :
|
pour éviter les soubresauts du marché , il faut acheter par étapes, certains établissements proposent des plans d'épargne boursières en cas d'orage sur une valeur, regarder si cela remet fondamentalement en cause la valeur de cette société ou si c'est un phénomène épidermique, donc passagé...dans ce cas achetez ! prenez vos bénéfices quand ils sont là, le temps n'est pas forcément un allié ! diversifiez de manière réaliste, par secteur économique, géographique, et par méthode d'évaluation (PER..) ainsi que par les indicateurs d'analyses techniques (macd, rsi....) diversifiez n'est pas disperser son portefeuille |
|||
|
AVANTAGES
|
INCONVENIENTS
|
|||
|
Quelles
sont les valeurs pères de famille ?
|
ce sont des sociétés affichant une croissance moyenne,régulière de leurs résultats sur un secteur mur mais avec uen bonne visibilité. |
ce sont des valeurs refuges en cas de "gros temps" sur le marché | à l'inverse en période forte hausse elles patissent de la comparaison avec les valeurs de croissance , sur longue période la croissance des cours est faible |
ACCOR AIR LIQUIDE DANONE |
|
Quelles
sont les valeurs de rendement ?
|
celles qui offrent un gros dividende |
le niveau du rendement superieur à 5% dans ces temps de faible inflation | ne pas se tromper en achetant une valeur dont le dernier dividende parait cossu mais dont la société ne peut plus asssurer le versement.. car les bénéfices ont fait place à des pertes !! | LES IMMOBILIERES : SIMCO, GECINA.... |
| Quelles sont les valeurs de croissance ? |
leurs activités s'éxercent sur des secteurs à forte croissance comme le multimédia, l'informatique, les télécoms... |
gain potentiel récurrent sur moyenne période | en cas de retournement du marché, ces valeurs subiront une correction plus importantes que les valeurs précédentes |
CAP GEMINI L'OREAL ALCATEL |
| Quelles sont les valeurs cycliques ? | leurs activités sont sensibles aux cycles macro économiques, ce sont les valeurs des secteurs primaires comme le batiment, l'automobile, la sidérurgie... | on peut prévoir les hausses et les baisses | sur long terme la perfomance est lissée par l'alternance des cycles de hausse et baisse de ces valeurs |
SAINT GOBAIN RENAULT SCHNEIDER |
| Quelles sont les valeurs spéculatives ? | en cours de restructuration, sous le coup d'une opération financière ou en phase de retournement | gain à très court terme | risque grandiose et une volatilité extrême |
FI SYSTEM LIBERTY SURF ZAMBIA COOPER |
Fiche pratique - Les mesures de sensibilité |
|
Key Points to Remember:
BULLISH Market Strategies
| Option Spread Strategy | Description | Reason to use | When to use |
| Buy a Call | Strongest bullish option position. | Loss limited to premium paid. | Undervalued option with volatility increasing. |
| Sell a Put | Neutral bullish option position. | Profit limited to premium received. | High volatility, bullish trending market. |
| Buy Vertical Bull Call Spread | Buy Call & sell Call of higher strike price. | Loss limited to debit. | Small debit, bullish market. |
| Sell Vertical Bear Put Spread | Sell Put & buy Put of lower strike price. | Loss limited to strike price difference less premium received. | Large credit, bullish market. |
BEARISH Market Strategies
| Option Spread Strategy | Description | Reason to use | When to use |
| Buy a Put | Strongest bearish option position. | Loss limited to premium paid. | Undervalued option with increasing volatility. |
| Sell a Call | Neutral bearish option position. | Profit limited to premium received. | Option overvalued, market flat to bearish. |
| Buy Vertical Bear Put Spread | Buy at the money Put & sell out of the money Put. | Loss limited to debit. | Small debit, bearish market. |
| Sell Vertical Bull Call Spread | Sell Call & buy Call of higher strike price. | Loss limited to strike price difference minus credit. | Large credit, bearish market. |
NEUTRAL Market Strategies
| Option Spread Strategy | Description | Reason to use | When to use |
| Strangle | Sell out of the money Put & Call. | Maximum use of time value decay. | Trading range market with volatility peaking. |
| Arbitrage | Buy & sell similar options simultaneously. | Profit certain if done at credit. | Any time credit received. |
| Calendar | Sell near month, buy far month, same strike price. | Near month time value decays faster. | Small debit, trading range market. |
| Butterfly | Buy at the money Call (Put) & sell 2 out of the money Calls(Puts) & buy out of the money Call (Put). | Profit certain if done at credit. | Any time credit received. |
| Guts | Sell in the money Put & Call. | Receive large premium. | Options have time premium & market in trading range. |
| Box | Sell Calls & Puts same strike price. | Profit certain if done at credit. | Any time credit received. |
| Ratio Call | Buy Call & sell Calls of higher strike price. | Neutral, slightly bullish. | Large credit & difference between strike price of option bought & sold. |
| Conversion | Buy futures & buy at the money Put & sell out of the money Call. | Profit certain if done at credit. | Any time credit received. |
Special Market Situations
| Option Spread Strategy | Description | Reason to use | When to use |
| Straddle Purchase | Buy Put & Call. | Options will lose time value premium quickly. | Options under-valued & market likely to make a big move. |
| Covered Call | Buy future & sell Call. | Collect premium on Calls sold. | Neutral to slightly bullish. |
| Covered Put | Sell future & sell Put. | Collect premium of Puts sold. | Neutral to slightly bearish. |
| Synthetic futures position. | Buy Call (Put) & Sell Put (Call). | Neutral, slightly trending market. | Receive credit, option sold far out of the money. |
Les certificats nouvellement apparus sur le marché des produits dérivés se définissent comme des valeurs mobilières cotées en continu. Ils s’acquièrent comme toute autre valeur au comptant, à l’aide d’un code sicovam qui leur est attribué dès leur émission. Une échéance leur est donnée au terme de laquelle ils perdent toute valeur.
A l’instar des warrants, les émetteurs leur assurent la tenue d’un marché de sorte que l’acquéreur puisse à tout moment trouver une offre et surtout une contrepartie. Les certificats permettent de répliquer un indice, une action, voire un panier d’actions réunies généralement autour d’une thématique. Ils offrent des avantages certains, notamment par le fait qu’à la différence des sicav indicielles, ils ne supportent pas de frais de gestion.
Les seuls frais qu’ils subissent sont ceux liés à leur acquisition et à leur cession. Un investisseur qui voudrait jouer l’évolution d’un indice se dispense, par l’acquisition d’un certificat, de l’appréhension avec les frais afférents de l’ensemble des valeurs qui composent cet indice.
L’imagination des émetteurs est fertile. Ils proposent différents certificats avec des mécanismes d’évaluation divers qui peuvent ou non bénéficier d’un effet de levier et permettre d’accompagner des mouvements de hausse ou de baisse. Certains certificats n’intègrent pas dans la composition de leur prix une valeur temps. D’autres, en revanche se nourrissent de celle-ci, dans un sens d’ailleurs positif, à la différence des warrants, lesquels, nous l’avons vu dans nos précédentes éditions, en pâtissent.
L’investisseur ne doit pas se fier uniquement au nom du certificat pour savoir à quel type appartient celui qu’il acquiert. En effet, certains certificats d’appellations différentes répondent aux mêmes définitions. C’est le cas des certificats discount ou stars.
Nous pourrons ainsi voir chacun d’eux et d’ écrire leurs mécanismes.
Convertible bonds are bonds. They have a coupon payment and are legally debt securities, which rank prior to all equity securities in a default situation. Their value, like all bonds, depends on the level of prevailing interest rates and the credit quality of the issuer.
The exchange feature of a convertible bond gives the right for the holder to convert the par amount of the bond for common shares a specified price or "conversion ratio". For example, a conversion ratio might give the holder the right to convert $100 par amount of the convertible bonds of Ensolvint Corporation into its common shares at $25 per share. This conversion ratio would be said to be " 4:1" or "four to one".
The share price affects the value of a convertible substantially. Taking our example, if the shares of the Ensolvint were trading at $10, and the convertible was at a market price of $100, there would be no economic reason for an investor to convert the convertible bonds. For $100 par amount of the bond the investor would only get 4 shares of Ensolvint with a market value of $40. You might ask why the convertible was trading at $100 in this case. The answer would be that the yield of the bond justified this price. If the normal bonds of Ensolvint were trading at 10% yields and the yield of the convertible was 10%, bond investors would buy the bond and keep it at $100. A convertible bond with an "exercise price" far higher than the market price of the stock is called a "busted convertible" and generally trades at its bond value, although the yield is usually a little higher due to its lower or "subordinate" credit status.
Think of the opposite. When the share price attached to the bond is sufficiently high or "in the money", the convertible begins to trade more like an equity. If the exercise price is much lower than the market price of the common shares, the holder of the convertible can convert into the stock attractively. If the exercise price is $25 and the stock is trading at $50, the holder can get 4 shares for $100 par amount that have a market value of $200. This would force the price of the convertible above the bond value and its market price should be above $200 since it would have a higher yield than the common shares.
Issuers sell convertible bonds to provide a higher current yield to investors and equity capital upon conversion. Investors buy convertible bonds to gain a higher current yield and less downside, since the convertible should trade to it bond value in the case of a steep drop in the common share price.
Investors traditionally use "breakeven" analysis to compare the coupon payment of the convertible to the dividend yield of the common shares. Modern techniques of option analysis examine the convertible as a bond with an equity option attached and value it in this manner.
|
Convertible Style Investments Convertibles give investors the benefits of regular income combined with the ability to participate in equity upside. We have divided convertibles into two sections;
Income Style convertibles behave like a bond, they have very little, if any, sensitivity to movements in the underlying share price. They should be traded on the basis of their yield. Equity Style convertibles behave more like a share. They are quite sensitive to movements in the underlying equity. If the ordinary shares go up, equity style convertibles are likely to go up as well. If the ordinary shares go down the convertibles will also go down but to a smaller extent. Convertibles both income and equity style come in different forms; the two main ones are outlined below Convertible bonds are debt instruments which can be converted into equity in the underlying company in the form of shares They are sometimes described as a combination option and bond. They have a fixed maturity date and pay a coupon throughout the life of the product .As long as the company stays in business you can convert either to the underlying shares on a one for one basis or cash at maturity. A convertible bond has the ability to rally if the stock rallies (the option ),but if the stock falls the convertible will not fall as aggressively and starts performing in the same way as a bond. Converting Preference Shares are similar to the convertible bond in that the holder may convert into the underlying share at a specified time if they so desire, it is at maturity that they differ. Whereas the bond is redeemable for cash or convertible into a share, the preference shares must be redeemed for an amount of shares. These shares are issued to you at a discount. The dollar value of the shares you receive at maturity is set, the number of shares you receive will depend on the price of the ordinary shares at maturity of the prefs. A preference share in the event of a company wind-up ranks higher than ordinary shares in regard to both dividend and repayment.
|
|
Convertible Bonds:
Debt, Equity or a Hybrid?
Educational Objectives:
The interest rate on convertible bonds is usually
much lower than the rate on similar quality and maturity issues.
Convertible bonds are issued at a low coupon rate because the
company is offering investors an option to acquire common shares
(sometimes something other than shares) in a firm. This option
has value and the firm does not have to pay a high interest rate
since the firm is offering something else of value (the conversion
feature) along with the bond. Often a convertible issue is just
a delayed equity offering.
The issue will have a par value of $1,000, plans are for the bond to be issued at par, a 3.4% coupon (annual payment), and it will be due in 2019. Also, the firm can call the bond at a price of $1,060 after five years have passed from issuance (most bonds are callable). Notice that the firm is able to issue a bond with a 3.4% coupon at a time when other firms with a similar risk profile are paying 8%. This is due to the conversion feature. Let's say that the bonds are convertible at $50 per share beginning immediately at issuance. This implies a conversion ratio of 20 ($1,000 / $50 = 20). Each share of stock is convertible into 20 shares of stock. Today the stock is currently selling for $16 per share so the conversion value is $320 (20 * $16 = $320). For example purposes I used a simplistic way to illustrate the conversion value of the bond. Investment bankers may use more sophisticated means of pricing this piece; methods such as options pricing models are used.
The value of a 3.4% annual payment bond due in 20
years is approximately $548. How did I arrive at this number?
The convertible is worth approximately $548 + $320 = $868.
We added the value of the bond piece and value of
the convertible piece. Now these two pieces do not add to the
bond's issue price of $1,000. This is because there may be a premium
that investors will be willing to pay due to instrument offering
the possibility of investors participating in the stock's upside
and at the same time offering a payment stream not offered by
stock ownership (because of no dividend payout). The firm's investment
bankers will try to take advantage of situations like this as
they can. One should examine option pricing models to learn
about other aspects of the security's structure that may influence
the premium.
Market Example:
Check out the ALZA - 5% CONVERTIBLE
SUBORDINATED DEBENTURES DUE 2006. These bonds are trading at a
premium to their conversion value.
The conversion rate is 26.18 shares per $1,000 principal
amount of debentures. Alza (NYSE - Ticker AZA) is trading around
$53 per share and the bonds are trading at a quote of 147.5 per
$1,000 face amount. This quote is a percentage of par so the price
is $1,475.00 per $1,000 face amount. The conversion value of the
bonds is approximately $53 * 26.18 = $1,397.17. The convertible
is trading somewhat above this value. This indicates that investors
are willing to pay a premium for the bond in excess of the conversion
value. Why? Can you value the interest piece of the paper? Does
the interest piece when combined with the convertible piece add
to the market price? What is going on?
Check out the SEC database for information on the Alza 5% convertibles due 2006
. Check out the details of teh Alza issue by reading the prospectus.
Is the indenture in the prospectus?
A convertible may be appropriate for a middle layer
of financing if a firm is in a situation where it cannot pay a
higher interest rate, and, where there exists investors that may
want a piece of equity. This layer of financing is frequently
referred to as mezzanine financing.
According to an article in Corporate Financing
Week the FASB has recently endorsed a method for valuing hybrid
investments such as convertible bonds. A discussion of this method
may be found in Corporate Financing Week, Vol. XXV, No.
4, Page 6.
Scenarios:
One year later:
The firm's stock sells at $30 and interest rates have remained
the same. Should the investor convert the bond into stock.
$30 * 20 conversion ratio = $600. So do not convert. Remember
that the interest stream stops upon conversion so this stream
has no value.
What might the bond be worth if the stock is trading at $30 and interest rates are at 8% on similar bonds.
Value of Conversion piece = $600
Value of bond piece approximately $558. The bond cannot be converted profitably so the bond piece has some value at this point. One can continue to hold the bond receiving coupons with the possibility of converting the bond into stock at a later date.
Total theoretical value of the two pieces = $1,158. The bond may be selling at a price lower than $1,158 because even though the conversion piece has value, if converted, the bond piece loses all value. The bond may be selling at a value greater than $1,158 due to demand for a piece of paper that offers the possibility of a stream of coupon payments with the possibility to convert some day.
The prices of the two pieces of the convertible are changing relative to the conversion price of the stock.
So the bond may have increased in value and interest rates
have remained the same. This is due to the conversion feature.
Remember that a bond's price in the market place is determined
by supply and demand forces.
What might the bond be worth if the stock is trading at $60.
Value of Conversion piece = $60 * 20 = $1,200
Value of bond piece approximately $558. But the market is not going to value the bond piece because it is worth nothing if the bond is converted. The stock is trading above the conversion parity price ($1,000 / 20 = $50) so the bond can be profitably converted.
Total theoretical value of the two pieces = $1,758. But you aren't going to realize this value.
The bond will probably be selling at discount to this value.
If the bond is converted you own 20 shares of stock valued
at $1,200 but if you convert you give up the payment stream. So
the bond's coupon has virtually no value. The bond may be trading
at around $1,200, probably above, due to the right to convert
and the right to the coupon payments.
As the stock price rises the bond piece loses value and as the stock price falls the stock piece loses value.
What might the bond be worth if the stock is trading at $10 and market yields are still at 8% and 19 years to maturity.
This is what may be called a busted
convertible. Its conversion value, and probability of conversion
are both very low. $10 * 20 = $200.
In this kind of situation relative to the conversion price
a bond will trade closer to the price of the true bond piece.
This offers the possibility for a floor
price for the bond. This floor price is the value of
a pure bond discounted at the yield to maturity of similar quality
and maturity issues. In this case the value of a 3.4% annual payment
straight bond discounted at an 8% annual rate is approximately
$558.23 (floor price). The conversion piece has a theoretical
value of $200 but can this be realized (what is the probability
that the stock price will rise from $10 to conversion parity price
of $50, it's low).
Well, looks like many ways to examine convertible pricing.
Not exactly straight forward! This is why arbitrage opportunities
can arise with these types of securities and why one should always
contact professional help when dealing with securities such as
these.
A Convertible-Bond Arbitrage Example:
(this might help explain a short sale)
Suppose one year following the bond's issue that the stock is trading $70 and the bond is offered for sale at $1,200. The financial markets move very fast. Situations can happen in a few minutes. That's why you see people watching computer monitors; to try and find these situations.
Step 1: Buy the bond for $1,200.
Step 2) Immediately arrange to borrow stock and sell
20 shares of the stock short for $70 per share. 20 * $70 =
$1,400.
Step 3) Over the next few days arrange to convert the bond
into stock. You now own 20 shares of stock so deliver this
stock to cover the borrowed stock.
$1,400 - $1,200 = $200 per bond in arbitrage profit.
Now you would think that a situation this obvious would not take
place and you are correct. I just gave this situation for explanatory
purposes.
Forced Conversion:
The call feature of a bond is frequently used to force conversion.
In the previous arbitrage example assume that the stock is at
$70 and conversion value is at $1,400. The bonds are callable
at $1,060. So the firm can force conversion by calling the bond.
How? Investors will convert the bond into $1,400 (20 shares of
stock) rather than receive $1,060 from the company.
Something investors examine periodically are credit spreads in the market. Credit spreads refer to yield differences between various debt securities. In general, the credit spreads of Treasuries, corporates, and high yield debt instruments are compared. It basically works like this. Generally, if investors are concerned about the economy or the financial markets they will bid up Treasury prices (this means that the yield goes down). Treasuries are bid up because they are risk-free in terms of default risk. Corporates, especially high yield junk bonds, are vulnerable to the business cycle's ups and downs. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that yield spreads between Treasuries and high yield corporates will widen if investors perceive business downturn. The firms behind the high yield bonds may go under in a bad economic downturn and this default risk may not be worth the higher coupon so investors sell.
Remember in the first Finance class that we indicated that there are many different yield curves. Each yield curve illustrates the yield associated with the maturity structure relating to a bond belonging to a particular default risk class.
One reason bond traders buy and sell bonds is due to their perceptions of changes in the yield curves associated with bonds having different credit risk.
Definition: A basis point is 1/100th of 1%. So a 100
basis point move represents a full 1% move in rates.
Credit Spreads:
Spreads are presented in basis points.
Credit spreads were much wider in August 1998 when the financial markets were going through their problems. Following the FED moves in the fall notice how in November the spreads narrowed. Why is the spread between Treasuries and high yield securities remaining at a high level here in February? The reason for the spread aside, bond traders see situations like this and, based on their view of the markets, position their portfolios to reflect their views.
This information looks at one range on the yield curve kind of in the intermediate sector.
I hope this table comes out correctly. Formatting tables for Internet use is one thing I have not mastered.
Example: 9.2% - 5.55% = 3.65%. This is 365 basis points.
8/25/1998 11/12/1998 2/3/1999
Junk Treasury Spread 365BP 277BP 454BP
10 Year Treasuries 5.55 % 6.7% 5.45%
Corporate AAA/AA 6.34 7.28 6.27
Corporate A/BBB 6.74 7.49 6.78
Corporate High Yield 9.2 9.47 9.99
Muni 7-12 year 4.42 4.9 4.07
BP - Basis Points
Why are the Municipal yields at approximately the same maturity much lower?
Source The Wall Street Journal
Bears are putting forth the fundamental argument that the gold market bulls had already factored in all the bullish news events-namely world geopolitical uncertainties-and now that the bull can't be fed new bullish inputs on a regular basis, prices have dropped. Remember the old market saying that a bull market needs to be fed every day.
Educational Feature: 10 More Valuable Trading Rules
By Jim Wyckoff
Many of you have seen my "Top 10" Trading rules. (If you have not, just send me an email at jim@jimwyckoff.com and I will email them to you.) Below are 10 more important trading rules that traders can add to their trading toolbox, or to their trading plans of action. These rules are not exclusive ones that I have discovered myself, but ones that I have picked up through the years by talking to successful traders and from reading informative books by successful traders. These rules are in no particular order of importance.
Don't trade markets about which you know very little. This is not to imply you have to be a fundamental expert on every market you wish to trade. However, you should know about what fundamentals are impacting, or could impact, a market you are contemplating trading. For example, a person who has only traded grains would not want to jump right into a Treasury Bond futures trade without first doing a bit of homework on how the bond market trades-in what price increments (dollar amount per tick), trading hours, on what exchange the market trades, etc. A trader could pick up a Wall Street Journal and read the "Credit Markets" section for a week or so to become familiar with fundamental factors that influence the bond market. Also, consider this: Most traders enjoy the process of trading. If they did not, they would likely just hand their money over to a "fund manager" and give the manager discretionary control over their money. Learning and knowing what fundamental factors are impacting or could impact a market a trader is contemplating trading is part of the process (enjoyment) of trading.
Don't trade on "tips." I have been involved in the futures industry and trading for around 20 years and have never heard a good trading tip. Reason: There are not any-at least not any that are any good for "regular guys" like you and me. Markets are way too big and too tightly regulated to be impacted by any tips or inside information. Any legitimate "early information" has almost certainly already been factored into the market price structure by the time off-floor traders could ever benefit from it. Don't confuse tips with rumors. Markets do move on rumors more than just occasionally. Rumors are a part of futures trading, but still fall into the category of "not of much use" to off-floor traders. Besides, many rumors are never confirmed as fact and are often self-serving to those who try to start them. When I was a reporter on the trading floors I would occasionally have traders walk up to me and try to plant a rumor with me, to try to get me to report it on the news wires. It never worked.
Don't get too fancy with your market orders. Entering a trade "at the market" with a market order may be the best way to enter a trading position-especially in markets that are liquid (have high open interest). It's certainly the easiest way to enter. Fiddling around with limit or stop-limit, or other multi-step orders to save a tick or two or three can cost a trader a good entry point or even a missed trade altogether. I must admit that I have been guilty of this offense. I don't mean to imply that limit or stop-limit or other types of orders are not useful in certain circumstances, because indeed they are. However, the majority of entries into trades are best made "at the market." I compare this situation to pitchers in Major League baseball who "nibble" with their pitches around home plate. Most wind up with a walk instead of an out.
Don't form a new market opinion during trading hours. This rule goes hand in hand with the rule that says you need to stick to your trading plan of action. Day-to-day market "noise," or the minor up-and-down price fluctuations of a market, can be at least distracting to a trader and at most prompt the trader to make a hasty and not well-founded trading decision.
Don't force trades; if you don't see a trade, stand aside. I won't chase a market just to put on a trade. I try to exhibit the patience and discipline in trading. So should you. Patience and discipline have not been easy virtues for me to learn. I fit into the description of a typical futures trader: "Type A" personality, competitive nature, and I hate to wait in lines. (Just ask my wife!) However, I learned early on that if I wanted even a chance at success in this fascinating business, I had to control my impatience. If you happen to miss a trading opportunity because you waited too long, there will be other trading opportunities. Don't chase markets.
A good trade is usually profitable right from the beginning. This is more an observation than a rule, but it is still useful. If the market price moves "your way" in the first couple days after you've executed the trade, then odds are significantly higher that your trade will be a winner. This rule reinforces the notion that tight protective stops are an important part of trading success. I wrote a feature a while back entitled, "Don't Hold Your Breath Too Long While Under Water" that also addressed clinging to losing positions. If a straight futures trade is under water after two or three days, more times than not it's prudent to take a small loss and move on.
Watch open interest in future contracts, and especially in options. In any futures contract or futures options strike price you are contemplating trading, make sure to first check the open interest for that specific contract or strike price. If a futures contract or options strike price has a low open interest total, it is probably best to seek out a more liquid contract. Fills on both entry and exit can be tough and produce more slippage than is desired. Lumber futures and options have very low open interest totals. The U.S. Dollar Index options market also has low open interest.
Know what you can and cannot control. You can control the market you want to trade. You can control the type of market order you want to give your broker. You can control when you want to enter the market. You can control the amount of contracts you wish to trade, and you can control when you want to exit the market. But you can't control the market. Knowing and prudently managing the market factors you can control and knowing that you cannot control the market gives you a trading edge.
Make the market's action confirm your opinions. If you've got a particular market on your "radar screen" for a trade, don't just jump in based on a hunch or a "gut feeling," or because you want to get a fill right away. Make the market first confirm your opinion. Make the market show you some strength if you want to be long, or make it show you some weakness if you want to be short.
Do not overtrade. Trying to trade too many markets, or too many contracts in one market, can create problems for a trader. There is no set rule for how many markets one trader should trade at one time. Some traders can trade many markets at one time and not have a problem. But if a trader is feeling stress or can't keep up with what's going on in all the markets he or she is trading, then the trader is likely over-trading. For those traders who are really not sure how many markets to trade at one time, or how many contracts to trade for each position, it's always better to take a conservative approach.
That's it for now. Next time I'll examine another important topic on your road to more trading success. I hope you enjoy my features as much as I enjoy producing them for you.
1.0 Introduction
Exchange for physical transactions (EFP’s) have been part of the futures industry since the early 1900’s when they were first used to manage risk on trades involving commodities such as wheat, corn and soybeans.
Today, EFP’s are an established feature not only of commodity markets but also of the financial futures market. For large financial institutions such as banks and fund managers, EFP’s provide an important and convenient tool for portfolio management. Their flexibility, ease of execution and limited risk makes them a popular choice amongst investors who need to hedge large portfolio exposures or to switch positions between the cash and futures markets.
As the use of EFP’s in financial futures is not yet common in Malaysia, the purpose of this paper is to explain what EFP’s are and how they can be used. The paper looks at how MME Members and their customers can use EFP’s for risk management and how in the process, this will help to improve the liquidity and pricing efficiency of the markets in which these are done. The paper also looks at the ways in which EFP’s are used in international futures markets and reviews the documentation and regulatory issues surrounding their use.
2.0 What Is An EFP ?
An exchange for physical (EFP) is created when two parties agree to exchange a commodity or financial instrument (ie: a bond, bank bill etc) and then simultaneously agree to also take out an equal and opposite futures hedge.
An example of an EFP could be where an American bank agrees to sell a parcel of U.S treasury bonds to an Insurance company. At the same time as this occurs the bank and the Insurance company both agree to enter into an opposite hedge position. to cover the full value of the bonds that are exchanged. In this instance, the bank will be the buyer of U.S Treasury Bond futures while the Insurance company will be the seller.
Unlike normal futures transactions that are traded either on the floor or on the screen dealing system of a futures exchange, an EFP’s is purely an off-market transaction. This means that the full details of the trade (ie. the value, volume and prices) of the commodity and futures contracts being exchanged can be privately negotiated between the two parties to the deal. The EFP is registered with the Exchange only after, these details have been agreed.
A key feature of an EFP is that the futures leg of the deal can be done at any price that is agreed upon and need not be the same as the prevailing market price. The exact volume of contracts is also negotiated and the one price is used to cover the entire transaction.
3.0 Benefits of EFP’s
The primary benefit of an EFP is that it allows large institutional investors such as banks, discount houses and fund managers to exchange large parcels of physical securities at a known futures price and volume.
Often, due to the liquidity constraints it is very difficult (if not impossible) for an institutional investor to obtain a futures hedge in the open market for the full volume and required.
In many cases, an investor who needs to buy or sell a large amount of futures contracts to hedge their physical portfolio can often not do so because there is simply not enough liquidity in the market to absorb the transaction. As a result, large cash market transactions have to be cancelled which further damages the liquidity and price efficiency of both the futures and underlying market.
With an EFP however, a large investor can know with certainty that they will receive both the full volume and price needed for their futures hedge. In so doing this allows both the physical and futures transactions to occur. In so doing, it creates new open positions which are often liquidated at a later date in the open market. EFP’s can therefore promote liquidity and volume in the markets in which they operate - a fact which was acknowledged in the Catalyst Institute study on EFP’s conducted last year.
4.0 The Catalyst Institute Study
In January 1997 the Chicago based thinktank, the Catalyst Institute published a report entitled " The role of EFP’s in futures markets". The report was authored by Ms Sharon Brown-Hruska (Tulane University) and Mr Paul Laux (Case Western Reserve University).
In the report, the authors looked at the history and role that EFP’s have played in the futures market. Amongst the key findings made in the 109 page report were:
5.0 An Example of An EFP
To fully understand how EFP’s are used. It is beneficial to look at the two main types of EFP’s traded in the market and the rationale for using them.
The first type of EFP is the traditional type of "basis trade" . This is where an EFP is used to lock in a firm "basis " for a future transaction involving a commodity product such as wheat, corn or palm oil.
The goal of a "basis" EFP is to provide both parties with the certainty that they will be able to exchange a physical commodity in the future, at a fixed margin or "basis" to the corresponding futures contract. This principle is illustrated in the following example which uses the wheat contract traded on the Chicago Board of Trade (CBOT).
5.1 An EFP Using Wheat
Assume it is now August and a farmer has 100,000 bushels of wheat which he intends to sell in November, to a local cereal company.
The farmer faces two price risks on this intended transaction. The first is that the price of wheat may fall between now (August) and when the time when the wheat is to be sold (November). This risk can be managed by selling futures contracts against the position. As a November delivery month contract is not available, the farmer decides to sell December futures in the open market to gain protection from any price fall that may occur. The farmer therefore sells December futures at the market price of $3.94 per bushel.
While the farmer has largely hedged his price risk, he is still exposed to "basis risk". This is risk that the futures price may not behave in the same way as that of the wheat that the farmer intends to sell.
Should the basis weaken, (ie. the price differential between the cash and futures price widens) the farmer may not be fully protected should wheat prices fall. This is because due to the deterioration in the basis, the profit made on the futures hedge will not be sufficient to offset the loss made on the wheat that the farmer owns.
To guard against this risk the farmer (in August) makes an agreement with the cereal company to do an EFP in November.
Under the terms of the EFP the farmer agrees to sell 100,000 bushels of wheat to the cereal company and to simultaneously buy from them December wheat futures. These futures will be used to close out the sold contracts taken out in August. The important part of the EFP is that the two parties agree to exchange the wheat at a fixed basis of 10 cents under the prevailing December futures wheat price.
5.2 The Result in November
From August to November, the wheat price falls as the farmer feared. As a result, the December futures price falls by 44 cents per bushel going from $3.94 to $3.50.
The farmer and the cereal company transact their EFP at these levels with the futures leg of the EFP being done at the current futures price of $3.50. The wheat itself is exchanged at $3.40 per bushel which is equal to the fixed basis of 10 cents agreed upon under the terms of the EFP.
The transactions undertaken by the farmer and the Cereal company are shown in the table below.
|
|
|
| Farmer has 10,000 bushels of wheat to sell in November | Farmer hedge price risk by selling December wheat futures in the
open market at the current price of $3.94 per
bushel.
At the same time, the farmer makes an agreement with a cereal company to exchange wheat in November at a fixed basis of 10 cents under the December wheat futures price |
|
|
|
| The farmer sells his wheat to the cereal company at $3.40 per bushel (10 cents under the December futures price). The farmers effective selling price is $3.40 + hedge profit of 0.44 = $3.84. | Farmer closes futures hedge by buying December wheat futures under the EFP at $3.50. A futures hedge profit of 44 cents per bushel is made. |
Had this had not been done, both parties would have been vulnerable to either a strengthening or weakening in the cash / futures basis. Under the EFP the farmer knew that his effective selling price would be $3.84 per bushel as this was 10 cents lower (ie. the agreed basis) than the futures price he locked in in August.
The use of EFP’s to remove basis risk has substantial economic benefits as it allows producers and end users of commodities to better plan their future expenditure. By not exposing them to the volatility of the cash / futures basis users of basis EFP’s can generate considerable savings which in turn can be passed on to their customers.
5.3 EFP’s For Portfolio Hedging
In addition to facilitating business in commodity markets, EFP’s are also widely used in interest rate, equity and currency futures markets.
Large financial institutions often use EFP’s to manage risk on portfolios of securities held or to set firm buying or selling prices on future cash market transactions. EFP’s are also used by arbitrageurs and professional traders to exploit short term pricing anomalies that can occasionally arise between the cash and futures markets. The following examples, illustrate just two of the many ways in which EFP’s can be used in interest rate markets.
5.4 EFP’s Using KLIBOR Futures
Assume it is now May and a Malaysian bank (Bank AAA) has a large holding of bank bills which it is using as a hedge against transactions made with its customers.
For balance sheet reasons, Bank AAA would like to transfer their physical bank bill position into the KLIBOR futures contract traded at MME. To do this they will need to liquidate their physical bank bill holdings and buy an equivalent amount of KLIBOR futures contracts).
Bank AAA is very concerned that if they have to do the cash and futures transactions independently of one another, poor prices will be received owing to the lack of liquidity in the market.
Accordingly, Bank AAA tries to find another bank or large financial institution who is willing to take on both their cash and futures position. After contacting a few potential counterparties, another bank (Bank BBB) agrees to buy the physical bills from Bank AAA and to sell KLIBOR futures to them so as to hedge their interest rate risk..
After negotiating the cash / futures basis, Bank AAA and Bank BBB transact an EFP. The details of the transactions made are shown in the table below.
|
|
|
| Bank AAA sells RM 100 million of 90- Day Bank Bills to Bank BBB at a yield of 8.75% | Bank AAA buys 100 KLIBOR futures from Bank BBB at 91.28 (8.78 %) |
While in this example an EFP was used to transfer a position from the cash to the futures market, it is also possible to do the opposite type of transaction.
For example, if a bank held a bought position in KLIBOR futures they could use an EFP to turn this position into an equivalent holding of short term securities such as treasury bills or negotiable certificates of deposits (NCD’s. Such a transaction may be useful when a bank has a KLIBOR futures position which is due to soon expire.
Rather than having the position go to cash settlement and then needing to do a separate cash market transaction, the bank could transfer their KLIBOR position into the physical market by doing an EFP. This could be done instantaneously, in volume and at a fully negotiable price.
5.5 EFP’s With Khazanah
Another common type of EFP is one which is done using physical bonds and bond futures.
Assume it is now February and a bank (Bank CCC) is intending to buy a large amount of Khazanah bonds when they are auctioned in one months time (ie. in March).
Bank CCC is concerned about a fall in interest rates between now and when the Khazanah bonds are auctioned. Should this occur, it will increase the price of the Khazanah bonds Bank CCC wishes to buy.
To hedge against this risk, Bank CCC decides to buy Khazanah bond futures in the open market (for the purposes of this example assume that this contract is available). Bank CCC does this so as to lock in a purchase price for the bonds it expects to receive when the bonds are auctioned in March.
Over the next month, interest rates fall as Bank CCC feared, thereby pushing up the cost of the Khazanah bond purchase.
On the day the bonds are auctioned, Bank CCC does an EFP with Khazanah whereby it agrees to simultaneously buy bonds from Khazanah and simultaneously sell bond futures to them.
The sold futures leg on this EFP is matched out against the bought futures position that Bank CCC already holds. Bank CCC is therefore left with the bought Khazanah bond position it originally wanted.
The transactions done by both Bank CCC and Khazanah are illustrated in the table below.
|
|
|
| Bank CCC intends to buy RM 50 million 3-Year Khazanah bonds when they are auctioned in March. They are concerned interest rates may fall. Current interest rates are 8.50%. | Bank CCC buys 500 Khazanah bond futures in the open market. An effective yield of 8.50% is established. |
|
|
|
| Bank CCC buys RM 50 million of 3-Year Khazanah bonds under an EFP with Khazanah. Bond yields have fallen from 8.50% to 8.00% making the bonds more expensive. | Bank CCC closes their futures hedge by selling 500 Khazanah futures to Khazanah at a yield of 8.00% A futures profit of 0.50% is made. |
5.6 EFP’s With Khazanah
In the example given, Khazanah itself was shown as being a party to the EFP trade. This poses the question as to why an issuer of bonds like Khazanah would want to do this ?
The answer to this question is that by using the EFP facility, issuers of bonds like Khazanah have the potential to substantially lower their borrowing costs.
As Khazanah has a fixed timetable for issuing bonds into the market (ie. at the end of each quarter month) it would be entirely possible for Khazanah to use bond futures to lower their borrowing costs. This would involve it selling futures in the months leading up to an auction so as to synthetically lock in its future borrowing rate.
When the time of auction arrives, Khazanah can then close its futures positions by issuing its bonds on an EFP basis. Ie. it would do EFP’s whereby it sells physical bonds and buys Khazanah futures. The futures contracts obtained under the EFP would be matched out against the previous sold positions undertaken in the open market.
This use of EFP’s as a tool for bond issuance is routinely done by Semi-Government borrowing authorities in Australia. In the lead up to a bond tender, these authorities will take sold positions in SFE bond futures to lock in their borrowing costs. These are then closed out via EFP when the bonds are auctioned to the market.
The use of EFP’s as a tool for bond issuers has several advantages.
Firstly and most importantly, it allows the issuer to set a firm yield on bonds which they intend to auction in the future. This means the issuer doesn’t have to speculate as to what interest rates might be on the day when the bonds are due to be auctioned.
Secondly, by using EFP’s the issuer knows they are likely to get a much better price for their bonds. This is because banks will be more willing to bid aggressively for the bonds if they are done on an EFP basis due to the lower risks involved.
Finally, through adopting an active portfolio management approach, bond issuers such as Khazanah and Corporates can use futures to substantially lower their borrowing cots. This is because they can sell bond futures during periods when interest rates are low and then roll these positions forward until they are needed. The profits from these transactions can then be used to offset the higher borrowing costs incurred during other periods when interest rates are higher.
6.0 EFP Usage in International Futures Markets
As was mentioned earlier in this paper, EFP’s are widely used throughout the futures industry.
At the world’s largest futures exchange, the Chicago Board of Trade (CBOT) substantial EFP business is traded not only in the agricultural products but also in financial products such as Treasury bond and note contracts. This business is sourced from bond dealers, portfolio managers and arbitrageurs who use EFP’s to trade the price differential "or basis" between physical bonds and notes and their related contracts traded on CBOT.
At London’s LIFFE exchange (the world’s second largest exchange) a special EFP trading facility known as BTF (basis trading facility) is also in place. This has been designed to accommodate the needs of bond dealers and institutional users who use EFP’s to switch exposures between the cash and futures markets. A similar facility is also in place at the Deutsche Terminborse Exchange (Europe’s second largest exchange).
In Australia, EFP’s have for many years, been a feature of the futures market. While they were initially used to facilitate after hours trading (ie. before the launch of the Exchange’s screen dealing system, SYCOM) they are now being used to hedge transactions involving the full range of money market and fixed interest securities as well as OTC derivatives.
Listed below is a table which shows EFP volume in SFE’s four major contracts during 1996.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
This stems from the popularity that EFP’s have with government bond price makers and other institutions involved in trading bonds in the secondary market.
Such is the popularity of EFP’s that prices for Commonwealth and Semi Government bonds are mostly quoted on interdealer broker screens on an EFP, rather than an outright basis. This is because fund managers and market makers like to use EFP’s for portfolio management purposes.
Spread traders also like EFP’s as they use them to trade yield spreads between Commonwealth bonds and Semi-Government bonds. To do this, they will do an EFP whereby bond futures are bought or sold (as a proxy for Commonwealth bonds) and then an opposite trade will be done using Semi-Government bonds.
Swap dealers also like to use EFP’s to hedge the interest rate risk on their swap books. Ie: fixed rate payers will buy futures to guard against a fall in rates while fixed rate receivers will sell futures to guard against a rise in rates. EFPs’ are popular as they offer a cheaper hedge than using physical bonds both in terms of capital and transaction costs.
7.0 Documentation Requirements For EFP’s
As EFP’s are the only type of futures contract that can be traded "off-market", most Exchange’s have very strict documentation requirements to ensure that all EFP’s accepted are bona fide.
Typically when an EFP is registered, the Exchange will require documentary evidence that shows the following.
This documentation is usually attached to a pro-forma EFP form which outlines the names of the brokers and clearing members in whose name the futures contracts are to be registered. The responsibility for completing this form usually lies with the broker or Clearing Member whose clients are the parties to the EFP.
When an EFP is lodged with the Exchange, it is usually given to the Surveillance or Compliance division for their approval. Staff from these departments have the responsibility of ensuring that each EFP received is in compliance with the Exchange’s business rules. Should this be the case and the EFP is accepted, it will then be registered. For record keeping purposes, the Exchange will usually assign a specially prefix or identifier to the EFP so that separate EFP records and statistics can later be compiled.
Single Stock Futures and Exchange for Physicals
Does anyone know what an exchange for physical ("EFP") is? How about "Versus Cash"? According to the glossary of terms on the CBOT web site the definition of Versus Cash is:
Versus Cash: A transaction generally used by two hedgers who want to exchange futures for cash positions. Also referred to as "against actuals" or "exchange for physicals."
One aspect of Single Stock Futures is that they could represent the largest single increase in the potential users of EFPs or Versus Cash or Against Actuals that the futures industry has ever seen. Not everyone who trades corn has cash corn, or any other type of grain of even physical commodity for that matter. However, traders of Single Stock Futures have a much higher chance of being owners of cash equities. Because of this, I believe it is vitally important for the Single Stock Futures exchanges to offer EFP services. It will not be easy to integrate into the functionality of the electronic marketplace, but it will be important.
Let me offer an example of how this could work.
Trader A owns $100,000 of IBM stock. Trader A needs to increase available cash, but still wants to own $100,000 of IBM. Trader A enters into an EFP contract through Brokerage ABC. Trader A agrees to deliver $100,000 of IBM stoke to Brokerage XYZ in return for $100,000 in cash and a long futures position in IBM Single Stock Futures. Brokerage XYZ pays the $100,000 and receives the $100,000 in IBM stock and is given a short futures position in IBM. Assuming a 20% margin, Trader A would have $20,000 in margins for his long IBM futures positions and $80,000 in excess cash. Trader A would receive the $100,000 cash and deliver the $100,000 in IBM to brokerage XYZ the same day the trade was made through the DTC. The stock would need to be held in a "street name."
Another way to do the same transaction would be for Trader A to sell the cash IBM securities on a securities exchange. Trader A could sell his $100,000 of IBM on the New York Stock Exchange and have the $100,000 in 4 days, the trade day plus 3 days. Once the money was received and moved to Trader A's futures account, Trader A could buy the equivalent of $100,000 of IBM stock and would have $80,000 in excess cash and $20,000 in margins.
Another way to do the same transaction would be for Trader A to put his IBM on margin, thus freeing up 50% of the value. He could send the $50,000 to his futures account and then buy the $100,00 worth of IBM futures while selling his margined IBM shares at the same time. Trader A would receive the net receipts of his shares after the margin loan and any associated costs were paid in 4 days, the trade day plus 4 days.
As you can see, it would be most efficient for a trader who wanted to convert a cash securities position to a futures position by doing so using an EFP transaction. I am not sure I am smart enough to figure out the subtleties for the regulatory or tax implications, or even the operations requirements for the various entities registered to trade Single Stock Futures, but I do believe EFPs will be an important component in the success of this new product.
The EFP allows traders to move large chunks of a commodity in a private transaction while not exposing its position to any pit or bid-offer spread risk. In some ways an EFP is used just like a Block Trade, except in the case of an EFP the physical commodity or forward contracts for the physical commodity are included in the transaction. A Block Trade on a future exchange would just include futures contracts. The CBOT does not allow Block Trades, but it does allow Versus Cash.
Where I think the EFP/ Versus cash has particular value is for the unwinding of arbitraged positions prior to delivery. If I have bought IBM shares on Instinet and sold IBM futures contracts on OneChicago in a price arbitrage, an EFP transaction will allow me to quickly capture those arbitrage profits. Since a long cash and short futures position should be a margin-less position, the unwinding of the position in a back office transaction would have no negative impact on market and the price discovery process. The position held to delivery accomplishes the same thing as an EFP, save for the difference in time.
One element of the EFP is that it could essentially make different futures contracts for the same security fungible despite trading on different exchanges. If I own IBM shares and am short futures on One Chicago and then buy NQLX IBM futures contracts and short IBM shares on the NYSE, I could offset each trade through an EFP, thus eliminating the need to hold the positions to maturity or be lucky enough to find the opposite trades to overcome the bid-ask and transaction costs. In one sense I am long IBM on One Chicago and Short IBM on NQLX. I am long IBM in my futures account, but short IBM shares in my securities account. Essentially, the positions are fungible by the use of the EFP.
The Single Stock Futures exchanges have expressed various opinions about the fungibility. I think it is important for them to be fungible. If the contracts were fungible from exchange to exchange, then some of the EFP transactions would not be necessary. In some ways it is the same thing. Fungibility means the contracts are offset in a back office procedure in conjunction with the clearing house, in this case the OCC.
Thus, we may not see EFPs offered when Single Stock Futures start trading because exchanges are trying to avoid the fungibility issue. I think that would be a mistake. There is a basic economic function that is provided in the EFP transaction and to not offer EFPs would leave the product flawed in my mind. That does not mean they won't work, but they would work better with EFPs.
Now if the exchanges start trading 5000 EFPs to 304 other contracts traded in competitive transparent markets, I will have a problem. I actually think EFPs could be standardized and offered right on the matching engine. I am sure there are some holes in my logic, or regulatory hurdles too onerous to overcome, but I believe EFPs should be part of the product design.