The Four Verses of Jesus





Remember: As you read these verses the cultural understanding of the word “wife” and “divorce” is very different in the book of Matthew than our understanding today of those words (Don’t forget the cultural context!). Also remember that Jesus does not say adultery is grounds for divorce (a GREAT misunderstanding) but fornication, and the primary meaning of the word “fornication” concerns sexual relations before marriage (again read The Forward).

Brethren, it’s not just 1 word (fornication) that is in dispute, but 3 words (“wife”, “divorce” AND “fornication”). Even in the Gospel of Luke (which in actuality is a letter written by a GENTILE author to a GENTILE man. Luke 1:3) even Luke left off the Jewish cultural exemption clause when he wrote his letter to Theophilus (Luke 1:1-4 “... that you (Theophilus) might know the EXACT truth about the things you have been taught).

Brethren, another important thing to remember is how the Apostle Paul saw the teaching of Jesus (or these below verses). He saw them - in his letter to the GENTILE Corinthian church - specifically as Jesus addressing believer / believer marriages. [“But to the (believers) married (to each other) I give instructions, NOT I BUT THE LORD (Jesus), that the wife should not leave her husband, but if she does leave, let her remain unmarried... ” just as the Lord says (in His teaching / or as we would say “in the Gospels”).

Again, NOT I BUT THE LORD (Jesus).

Brethren, believers are NOT to remarry from a divorce / seperation from another believer (1 Corinthians 7:10,11). In other words... what Paul is saying in 1 Corinthians 7:10,11 is that ‘those who believe’ and ‘who are married to each other’ will follow Jesus’ teaching on the matter (read Question 45, NO REMARRIAGE) and again read The Forward.

This is how the Apostle Paul saw the teaching of Jesus (or these below verses), and I do believe he had a better understanding of the language - as well as the customs of Judaism - than we do today.

Brethren, even Luke understood this - as well as Mark. And remember Luke spent time with Paul [see the “we” and “us” passages in that other GENTILE letter he wrote to that same GENTILE man (Acts 1:1). “The book” of Acts (Acts 16:10-17; 20:5-21:18; 27:1-28:16)]. Luke had ample opportunity to talk to Paul personally about the teachings of Jesus. I’m sure Luke even heard Paul speak publicly about Jesus’ teachings on many occasions. BOTH Luke - (in the letter of Luke) - and Paul - (in his 1st letter to the Corinthians) - agree that Jesus did not allow for remarriage from a believers divorce. They were “on the same page” regarding this issue.

Brethren, what God has joined together let no man separate.

And PS, brothers and sisters: do we really need to know about the customs of old Israel as well as the interpretation of ancient languages to understand Jesus’ teaching on these matter? (i.e. mercy & restoration).

Many Christians should be ashamed of themselves for their behavior.







Mattthew 5:31,32


The Closest Contemporary American English Translation of the Greek


“And it was said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of dismissal’; but I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife except for the cause of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.” (Matthew 5:31,32 NASV)



The Direct Word for Word Translation of the Greek


“And it was said: Whoever dismisses the wife of him, let him give her a bill of divorce. But I tell you that everyone dismissing the wife of him apart from a matter of fornication makes her to commit adultery, and whoever a dismissed [woman] marries, commits adultery.” (Matthew 5:31,32 The Interlinear Greek-English New Testament - Zondervan).



The Expanded Translation of the Greek


“Moreover, it was said, Whoever dismisses his wife, let him give her a bill of divorce. But, as for myself, I am saying to you, Everyone who dismisses his wife except in a case of unchastity, causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries her who has been dismissed, commits adultery.” (Matthew 5:31,32 Wuest)






Matthew 19:9

The Closest Contemporary American English Translation of the Greek


“And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” (Matthew 19:9 NASV)



The Direct Word for Word Translation of the Greek


“ But I say to you that whoever dismisses the wife of him not of(for) fornication and marries another commits adultery.” (Matthew 19:9 The Interlinear Greek-English New Testament - Zondervan).



The Expanded Translation of the Greek


“Moreover, I am saying to you, Whoever dismisses his wife for any other cause than fornication, and marries another, is committing adultery.” (Matthew 19:9 Wuest)




The NASV translates fornication as “immorality” here, where as the other more direct versions translate it as fornication. Remember the primary meaning of fornication is pre-marital sex which the NASV implies in choosing the word unchastity in Matthew 5 to represent the word. Unchastity does have the connotation of unfaithfulness by a spoken for spouse. Why NASV renders the word as “immorality” here ignores what they just said in Matthew 5 and ignores the context of the book. It also ignores the more direct translations. It could be - however - translated that way if it was weightily defined in the direction of premarital sex, and understood as that (as the word unchaste implies). I’m guessing the translators (of the NASV) knew the ramifications of what was going on and they compromised in committee here with one group of translators (anti divorce group) agreeing to translate it one way in Matthew 5 and another group (the pro-divorce group) agreeing to translate it another way in Matthew 19, but it’s only a guess on my part. Again the verses in Matthew both use the word fornication here (in the Greek) and the primary meaning of that word is pre-marital sex.


Also you might want to read the notation I wrote at the end of Mark 10:11,12 written below. The context of Matthew 19:9 and Mark 10:11,12 are almost identical and explain where Jesus was coming from. If anything - if you consider the context - (not only the Jewishness of the book of Matthew which again is interestingly brought out for Mark doesn’t record the exemption clause when he reports this almost exact story, which is very curious to me, see below), but also when you consider the disciples reaction to Jesus strict teaching (Matthew 19:10) you really get the full impact of what Jesus means by “immorality” (i.e. pre marital sex or unchastity as it is translated in the same book of Matthew chapter 5). The disciples knew full well what He was talking about. No divorce for fully married person, no exemptions. It’s better not to marry.







Mark 10:11,12



The Closest Contemporary American English Translation of the Greek


“And He said to them, Whoever divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her; and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery.” (Mark 10:11,12 NASV)



The Direct Word for Word Translation of the Greek


“And he says to them; Whoever dismisses the wife of him and marries another, commits adultery with her; and if she having dismissed the husband of her marries another, she commits adultery.” (Mark 10:11, 12 The Interlinear Greek-English New Testament - Zondervan).


Page xxxv in the Interliner introduction states “An article by Dr., Nigel Turnes in the Bible Translator for October, 1956, gives good reasons for understanding the verse, (her) referring to the last woman mentioned (another)”.

It is possible other manuscripts have been found to support the NASV of the reading since the rather old 1956 quote. Especially the common manuscripts of the day that show how words (and sentence structures) were used.


The Expanded Translation of the Greek


And He says to them, Whoever puts away his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. And if she herself, having put away her husband, marries another man, she commits adultery.(Mark 10:11,12 Wuest)





Notice that the exemption clause (“except for fornication”) is not mentioned here. Also the context of this verse is interesting. The verse itself is in purple and red. ..


And some Pharisees came up to Him... questioned Him whether it was lawful (not ‘right’ but lawful) for a man to divorce a wife. And He answered and said to them ‘What did Moses (the Law Giver) command you?’ And they said ‘Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of Divorce and send her away.’ But Jesus said to them ‘Because of your hardness of heart he wrote you this commandment. But (i.e. the word “but” is the same thing as saying ‘However I am going to tell you something different now’) from the beginning of creation (i.e. from Adam until Moses “came along”), God made them male and female. (i.e. 2 become 1, not 3 become 1 or 4 as in multiple divorces and re-marriages which were allowed under Moses) For THIS cause (on account of this - “from the beginning” (or God’s original purpose), not only in the past (i.e. from Adam until Moses ‘came along’) but also at present (i.e. from here on, not including the period of Moses) a man shall leave (behind) his father and mother and the two shall become one flesh; consequently they are (not only before Moses and from this point on) no longer two, but one flesh. What God has joined together (before Moses and in the present, or from this point on not including the period of Moses ), let no man (i.e. husband, wife, lawyer, judge or even the Moses of the past, whose laws were passing away) separate...And He said to them, Whoever divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her (note this is not the Law of Moses here - which has exceptions -but the Law of God as it was originally intended “from the beginning” The Kingdom law if you will which Jesus (and John the baptist) were restoring); and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery.”(In other words... No exceptions - as in Moses) (Mark 10:2-12 NASV)

You can also make a case that Jesus was trying to restore monogamy here too.







Luke 16:18



The Closest Contemporary American English Translation of the Greek


Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and he who marries one who is divorced from a husband commits adultery.” (Luke 16:16-18 NASV)



The Direct Word for Word Translation of the Greek


“Everyone dismissing the wife of him and marrying another commits adultery, and the [one] a woman having been dismissed from a husband marrying commits adultery.” (Luke 16:18 The Interlinear Greek-English New Testament - Zondervan).



The Expanded Translation of the Greek


“Everyone who dismisses his wife and marries another commits adultery. And he who marries her who has been dismissed from a husband commits adultery.” (Luke 16:18 Wuest)





Note: the exemption clause is not mentioned here too, also you might want to look at the context of this verse. The verse itself is in purple and red.

“The Law and the Prophets (i.e. the books of the Old Testament which include the books of Moses) were proclaimed until John (the Baptist came); since then (i.e. from John the Baptist on...) the gospel of the kingdom of God (i.e. the teachings of John and Jesus) is preached (which is different than the Laws of Moses and by the way preaching the Kingdom “Law” is different than establishing it), and everyone (who is listening and repenting) is forcing his way into it (i.e. lining themselves up with the Gospel to enter the kingdom). But (i.e. however, even though this is so, that something NEW is being preached) it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one stroke of a letter of the Law (of Moses) to fail (i.e. the Law will remain until all is fulfilled and accomplished) Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another (note NO exceptions here. This is not the Laws of Moses which had exceptions all over the place. Jesus is now speaking forward again like John did to Herod, the Gospel of the Kingdom now. He is preaching - as He just said - something new here not the Laws of Moses. We are in a period of transition...) commits adultery; and he who marries one who is divorced from a husband commits adultery.

Again, this is basically what John the Baptist said to Herod when Herod married his brothers wife. This is “the Gospel of the Kingdom ” which is being preached. No remarriage after divorce. (Luke 16:16-18 NASV)




To Return To The Forward




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For
“What the Bible really says about Divorce”




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