”...they (the Pharisees) said to Him (Jesus) We are not born of
fornication (por-ni-ah)
Some people take this as a “dig” at Jesus (i.e. the possible rumors surrounding His
birth). This may be true, but even if it is not, one can still see the Jewish understanding
of the word fornication (por-ni-ah) as well as the possible result of the sexual act (i.e.
children). The meaning of the word in its cultural context is quite clear. Pre-marital sex.
____________
“But I have a few things against you, because you have there some who hold to the
teaching of Balamm, who kept teaching Balak to put a stumbling block before the sons of
Israel...to commit acts of immorality (i.e. fornication, por-ni-ah) Revelation 2:14
Notice, if you will that this is Jesus speaking and using the word as He
understood it.
If you read what Balaam did Numbers 22:7,17, and the result of his act 25:1-8, 31:16-18
you will see that Balaam caused the children of Israel to commit fornication (i.e. sex
outside the marriage covenant. (See also 1 Cor 10:8 that also uses the word fornication to
describe the even, also see the Numbers 31:16-18 description of the word i.e. “knowing a
man intimately”) Anyway, over 20,000 people died as a result of committing this type of
sin during that period. OVER 20,000! (One can make a strong case for
early marriages!)
Also, if you go on to read Numbers 25:1-8 it talks
about an unmarried couple being killed in a tent with a spear. They must have been
pretty close to one another. (again another description of the word in context)
It’s no doubt that Jesus, in the book of Revelation, is talking about fornication
(por-ni-ah) as we commonly understand (i.e. pre-marital sex). The fornication
mentioned in the book of numbers is probably not the type of fornication that can
exist within a pre-marriage covenant (as in Matthew 5 & 19), but scripture in this case
(i.e. the Book of Numbers) is not clear, it doesn’t matter, what we do know is that
Jesus in the book of Revelation is not using the term (Por-ni-ah) to mean adultery,
otherwise He would have used that word (Moy-khah-o). Again read to book of
Numbers for a description of the term, it’s quite clear what it means.
Fornication can exist outside an engagement covenant - granted -
but not in Matthew 5 & 19, for He mentions the term WIFE too (more on that later). As a side note see what happened to Balaam later (Joshua 13:22). The
nation that he blessed ended up killing him. Balaam went into deep deep error. Also see
that Balaam is mentions in Jude 11, and 2 Peter 2:15, so what he did was significant.
____________
“but because of immorality (i.e. fornication, por - ni -ah), let each man have his own
wife, and let each woman have her own husband. 1 Cor 7:2)”
Again, another verse describing fornication in terms of pre-marital sex. Otherwise he
would not have said “let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own
husband”
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Below are 2 verses, one by Jesus and the other by Paul that contrast fornication with
adultery and other sins. In other words all theses sins while they may be similar are
different from each other given by the distinction of their names. IOW”S if they were the
same thing they would not have been given different names.
”For out of the heart come evil thoughts, murders,
adulteries (moy-khah-o), fornication’s (por-ni-ah)...” (Matthew 15:19, and Mark 7:21)
“Or do you not know that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not
be deceived; neither fornicators (por-ni-ah), nor idolaters, nor adulterers (moy-khah-o),
nor effeminate (A&G p. 489 “persons soft, effeminate, esp, of catamites, men and boys
who allow themselves to be misused homosexually”) nor homosexuals (A&G p.109 “a
male homosexual, pederast, sodomite”)...shall inherit the kingdom of God (1 Cor 6:9,10)
It’s interesting to take note of the above verse inparticular, for there are some who say
that fornication in Matthew 5 & 19 talks about gross sins like homosexuality, but as you
see in the above verse - while the homosexual acts may involve fornication of some type (I really don’t want to think about
it) - Homosexuality is without a doubt a distinct sin from Fornication (see Jude 7 “
indulged in gross fornication (por-ni-ah) AND went after strange flesh), otherwise it
would not be separated from it. I mean hey, if every sex act outside the covenant of
marriage can be called fornication (as some maintain), then what do you call sex
between single people? Fornication (i.e. sex between single
heterosexuals outside the marriage covenant) - while it’s true that
some aspect
of it may be involved in every sex sin, somehow looses it’s meaning as a distinct sin.
(Again read 1 Cor 6:9,10. It is a distinct sin.)
____________
“It is actually reported that there is immorality (por-ni-ah) among you, and
immorality (por-ni-ah) of such a kind as does not exist even among the gentiles, that
someone has his father’s wife”’ 1 Cor 5:1
It’s possible to make a case that fornication within marriage means a gross sin like
incest, but there is a lot of weight against it meaning this too. Almost every verse aside
from this one defines it as sex between single heterosexuals outside the
(consummated) marriage covenant. Also, if you factor in the reason
Paul uses this word por-ni-ah to describe the sexual relationship...
“ ... (an) immorality (por-ni-ah) of such a kind as DOES NOT EXIST even among the
gentiles...”
It really leads on to wonder. Paul does not even have a name for the type sexual
relationship he is addressing between a child and his/her parent. (what does this say
about our society?) IOW’S if he said something like “It is actually reported that there is
incest among you” the Corinthians would not know what he is talking.
Context does determines meaning, and if you use that rule then you can make a case for
fornication meaning incest, but since Paul does go on to say that there is no word for the
act (as in Homosexuality), he doesn’t go on and make up a word, he just uses the term
fornication to describe the sexual nature of the relationship. Porniah is used in a “default
mode” here.
Listen you don’t build a major doctrine (i.e. divorce on account of incest ) on a word that
is being used in a default setting, especially when there is a ton of evidence that shows
the word meaning something else. Incest can be forgiven (1 Cor 5:5)
And BTW, the way Porniah (i.e. fornication) is used in 1 Corinthians 5 in the context of a
heterosexual relationship - even though it is an illegitimate one, it is still used
in the sense of sexual relations between heterosexuals outside a (legitimate)
covenant. Hence the definition of fornication is still very much intact.
And BTW again. 1 Corinthians 5 does point out that there is such a thing as illegitimate
covenants.
____________
And finally a verse to end all misunderstanding of the distinctiveness of the two
terms...
‘Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the marriage bed
be undefiled; for fornicators (por-ni-ah) and adulterers (moy-khah-o) God will judge”
Hebrews 13:4
Again, Jesus in Matthew 5 & 19 is NOT talking about the sin of adultery as grounds for
divorce but fornication. They are two distinct, different sins as seen not only in the above
verse but in almost all the above verses. Especially, Especially, Especially 1 Cor 6:9,10
____________
Rahab verse?
Closest to actual meaning of word, “prof - sense”
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