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BIOL 1107 FINAL EXAM

Directions: Place the letter of the correct answer in the space provided on the answer sheet

Directions: Underline the correct answer.

  1. Which of the following is not TRUE of ATP?
    a. it is the primary energy currency of the cell
    b. it has efficient energy bonds
    c. it can release energy from its bonds
    d. it is made using energy created during photosynthesis

  2. In aerobic respiration oxygen becomes the final hydrogen/electron acceptor. In anaerobic respiration the end product of glycolysis is converted to different products dependent upon species. In humans the final endproduct of anaerobic respiration is:
    a. ethyl alcohol
    b. lactic acid
    c. folic acid
    d. glycerol

  3. Aerobic and anaerobic respiration are alike in all of the following ways except:
    a. both release energy from glucose
    b. acetaldehyde is converted to ethyl alcohol
    c. ADP is phosphorylated into ATP
    d. activation energy is required

  4. A primary hydrogen acceptor of cellular respiration is:
    a. DAP
    b. ATP
    c. DNA
    d. NAD

  5. Anaerobic, or non-oxygen using organisms, produce ATP via:
    a. cellular respiration
    b. fermentation
    c. oxygenation
    d. coupled reactions

  6. The three series of reactions that compose the process of aerobic cellular respiration are:
    a. glycolysis, oxygenation, reduction
    b. glycolysis, Krebs cycle, oxygenation
    c. glycogen transfer, Krebs cycle, fermentation
    d. glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain

  7. Two species of bacteria produce different respiratory end products. Species A always produces ATP, CO2, and H20; species B always produces ATP, ethyl alcohol, and CO2. Which conclusion can correctly be drawn from this information?
    a. Only species A is aerobic.
    b. Only species B is aerobic.
    c. Species A and Species B are both anaerobic.
    d. Species A and Species B are both aerobic.
    e. none of the above

  8. Most animals make energy available for cell activity by transferring the potential energy of glucose to ATP. This process occurs during:
    a. aerobic respiration, only
    b. anaerobic respiration, only
    c. both aerobic and anaerobic respiration
    d. neither aerobic nor anaerobic respiration

  9. The greatest amount of energy is released by the:
    a. oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide and water
    b. oxidation of glucose to lactic acid
    c. conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
    d. conversion of carbon dioxide and water to glucose

  10. Cellular respiration is:
    a. the same as breathing
    b. the process of energy-yielding nutrient decomposition
    c. the process of acquiring environmental oxygen
    d. not dependent on nutrition

  11. The six carbon compound synthesized in the Krebs cycle is:
    a. succinic acid
    b. ketoglutaric acid
    c. citric acid
    d. oxaloacetic acid

  12. Cellular respiration differs from burning in that, in cellular respiration:
    a. carbon dioxide is a waste product
    b. energy is obtained from C-H bonds
    c. energy is yielded mainly in the form of chemical bonds of ATP
    d. activation or starting energy is required

  13. In the oxidation of glucose to water and carbon dioxide, enzymes are needed to catalyze the:
    a. combination of glucose molecules
    b. release of energy by hydrogen removal
    c. storage of energy in glycogen molecules
    d. production of lactic acid

  14. That portion of cellular respiration which results in the production of pyruvic acid, carbon dioxide, and water is the:
    a. Krebs cycle
    b. citric acid cycle
    c. electron transport chain
    d. acetyl coenzyme
    e. none of these

  15. A series of oxidation-reduction reactions in which the hydrogen electrons are passed from one hydrogen acceptor to another thus releasing energy is:
    a. the Krebs cycle
    b. electron transport chain
    c. glycolysis
    d. citric acid cycle

  16. Which of the following would be most useful in determining the order of the steps in one of the respiratory pathways?
    a. adding inhibitors of specific reactions and determining which substance accumulate
    b. adding carbon dioxide and determining which enzymes become active
    c. adding radioactively labeled enzymes and determining what compounds become radioactive in respiring cells
    d. removing specific organelles and seeing how the pathways are affected
    e. removing the oxygen and determining which enzymes are inactive

  17. Fermentation (anaerobic respiration) is less efficient than aerobic respiration because fermentation:
    a. releases greater amounts of energy as heat into the environment
    b. does not convert as much chemical energy to ATP
    c. uses oxygen to form carbon dioxide but not water
    d. requires the use of more enzymes than aerobic respiration
    e. results in the formation of monosaccharides

  18. The synthesis of ATP in photosynthesis and respiration is essentially an oxidation process involving the "removal of energy from:
    a. organic compounds
    b. carbon dioxide
    c. electrons
    d. oxygen
    e. cytochromes

  19. Photosynthetic organisms depend upon the metabolic activities of other organisms for a continuing supply of:
    a. carbon dioxide
    b. oxygen
    c. water
    d. enzymes

    Base your answers to questions 17 through 20 on the incomplete reading passage below and your knowledge of biology.

    Biologists generally agree that the process of photosynthesis can be divided into two major reaction sets. These are often referred to as the light and dark reactions. During the light (or light dependent) reactions, molecules of [A] are "split," producing hydrogen atoms and a gas, [B]. During these reactions, extra energy is stored in molecules of [C].

    The dark (or light independent) reactions, also known as the carbon fixation reactions, require no light because they are powered by the energy molecules made in the light reaction. A three-carbon compound known as [D] is formed during these reactions.

  20. Which substance belongs in box A?
    a. carbon dioxide
    b. water
    c. nitrogen
    d. carbohydrate

  21. Which substance belongs in box B?
    a. methane
    b. nitrogen
    c. carbon dioxide
    d. oxygen

  22. Which substance belongs in box C?
    a. adenosine triphosphate
    b. ribose
    c. deoxyribose
    d. lactic acid

  23. Which substance belongs in box D?
    a. RNA
    b. DNA
    c. PGAL
    d. ADP

  24. During the process of photosynthesis, solar energy is converted into:
    a. electrical energy
    b. atomic energy
    c. chemical energy
    d. mechanical energy

  25. Dr. Calvin and his associates worked out the details of:
    a. the light dependent reactions
    b. photophosphorylation
    c. the C-4 pathway
    d. the light independent reactions

  26. A plant is growing under bright lights in a sealed chamber. What will happen to the atmosphere in the chamber?
    a. the amount of oxygen will increase
    b. the amount of oxygen will decrease
    c. the amount of carbon dioxide will increase
    d. the amount of carbon dioxide will decrease
    e. more than one of the above

  27. During the light (photochemical) phase of photosynthesis:
    a. oxygen is released
    b. hydrogen is released
    c. ATP is formed
    d. all of the above

  28. In the process of photosynthesis, chlorophyll serves as:
    a. an end product
    b. a raw material
    c. an energy converter
    d. a hydrogen acceptor

  29. The major function of the dark (chemical) reaction is:
    a. the regeneration of ATP
    b. the release of oxygen
    c. the synthesis of sugar
    d. the formation of PGAL

  30. The biosynthesis of nucleotides in the cell is part of the pentose phosphate shunt. The starting molecule is:
    a. glucose 6-P
    b. glyceraldehyde
    c. glucose
    d. NADPH

  31. The dark (chemical) reactions of photosynthesis cannot occur in the absence of:
    a. carbon dioxide
    b. light
    c. chlorophyll a
    d. oxygen

  32. The fixation of carbon dioxide requires carbon dioxide and:
    a. light
    b. ATP and NADPH2 only
    c. ATP, NADPH2, and ribulose diphosphate (a 5C sugar)
    d. total darkness
    e. none of the above

  33. Which of the following statements about photophosphorylation is true?
    a. cyclic photophosphorylation creates only NADPH
    b. cyclic photophosphorylation creates both ATP and NADPH
    c. noncyclic photophosphorylation creates only ATP
    d. noncyclic photophosphorylation creates both ATP and NADPH

  34. The major limiting factors in photosynthesis are:
    a. carbon dioxide concentration, wavelength and intensity of light, and temperature
    b. light intensity, temperature, and oxygen availability
    c. chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments, oxygen availability, and temperature
    d. carbon dioxide and oxygen availability, temperature, and soil nutrients

  35. At high light intensity the production of oxygen does not increase. The most probable reason is:
    a. too much light has killed the plant
    b. not enough carbon dioxide is present to sustain photosynthesis
    c. enzymes for photosynthesis are damaged by light or associated energy sources
    d. glucose is produced in light independent reactions

    A diagram of an experiment performed by T.W. Englemann is shown below. Answer the next question based on the diagram and your understanding of photosynthesis.

  36. The concentration of aerobic bacteria around a Spirogyra (green alga) filament exposed to red light is greater than the concentration around the same plant when it is exposed to green light. This phenomenum occurs because:
    a. green light affects enzyme action in bacteria
    b. red light supplies the energy needed by Spirogyra to liberate oxygen
    c. red light kills Spirogyra providing more food for the bacterial growth and reproduction
    d. bacteria utilize the energy from red light but not green

  37. Homeostasis is best thought of as:
    a. a state of wildly fluctuating conditions
    b. a state of constant and unchanging conditions
    c. a state of dynamic equilibrium maintained by negative feedback
    d. a constant state maintained by positive feedback
    e. any of the above

  38. During which phase does the nuclear membrane disappear and the chromosomes become distinct?
    1. interphase
    2. prophase
    3. metaphase
    4. anaphase
    5. telophase

  39. If the diploid chromosome number is 16, the chromosome number of each gamete will be:
    1. 4
    2. 8
    3. 12
    4. 16
    5. 32

  40. In humans, as the result of fertilization the zygote (fertilized egg) generally has the same number of chromosomes as the skin cell of either parent. This is true because:
    1. mitosis occurs during gamete (sex cell) formation
    2. division follows fertilization of the egg by the sperm
    3. the sperm usually contains fewer chromosomes than the egg
    4. meiosis occurs during gamete formation

  41. Which process ensures that the number of chromosomes will not double with each new generation?
    1. diffusion

    2. blending
    3. mitosis
    4. meiosis

  42. In the arithmetic of life, cells multiply by dividing. Division must be preceded by:
    1. a resting period
    2. a period in which cell parts are duplicated
    3. a phase in which chromosomes are non-functional
    4. the random assortment of chromosomes

  43. Meiosis differs from mitosis in that:
    1. it occurs only in the reproductive organs
    2. the chromosomes are not separated
    3. the chromosomes are duplicated twice
    4. the duplication of the chromosomes is followed by only 1 division

  44. The two new daughter cells formed by mitosis have:
    1. one-half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell
    2. twice the number of chromosomes of the parent cell
    3. the same number of chromosomes as the the parent cell
    4. the same amount of cytoplasm as the parent cell

  45. The phase of mitosis in which DNA replicates is:
    1. prophase
    2. metaphase
    3. anaphase
    4. telophase
    5. none of the above

  46. The diploid number of chromosomes is restored during:
    1. meiosis
    2. fertilization
    3. mitosis
    4. cleavage

  47. A drug blocks cytokinesis but affects no other part of the cell cycle. What happens to cells growing in the presence of this drug?
    1. no difference from cells growing in the absence of the drug
    2. cells will become smaller and contain fewer nuclei
    3. cells will become larger and contain many nuclei
    4. cells will be blocked in metaphase
    5. cells will no longer be able to synthesize DNA

  48. Regulation of the cell cycle occurs through the activity of various proteins. Among the more important are the:
    1. cyclins
    2. startherins
    3. Ran proteins
    4. godogsgo proteins

  49. Cell division is controlled by two sets of genes - suppressor genes and protooncogenes. The best known suppressor gene is:
    1. Ras
    2. p22
    3. p53
    4. hut

  50. During cell division, DNA condenses into compact structures called:
    1. chromatin
    2. mRNA
    3. chromosomes
    4. gifts to students

  51. A nine month old baby grows up to two inches in height in one month. Her cells are undergoing rapid:
    1. mitosis
    2. meiosis
    3. asexual reproduction
    4. fertilization

  52. Which of the following is not part of interphase?
    1. G1
    2. G2
    3. S
    4. metaphase
    5. all are part of interphase

  53. Genes will not be found in gene pairs in the:
    1. sperm cells of a frog
    2. muscle cells of a worm
    3. leaf cells of a plant
    4. lung cells of a grasshopper

  54. A new baby has a karotype including an X and a Y chromosome. The baby is:
    1. male
    2. female
    3. haploid
    4. diploid

  55. During mitosis, a double stranded chromosome is attached to a spindle fiber at the:
    1. centriole
    2. centrosome
    3. centromere
    4. cell plate

  56. Tarzan’s faithful chimpanzee companion has 48 chromosomes in each of his body cells. How many chromosomes would normally be present in a gamete produced by this chimpanzee?
    1. 24
    2. 36
    3. 48
    4. 96

  57. If gametes were formed as the result of mitosis, each time that fertilization occurred the species chromosome number would be:
    1. reduced by half
    2. constant (unchanged)
    3. doubled
    4. quadrupled

  58. DNA is believed to be the genetic material because:
    1. all the body cells of an individual seem to have identical amounts and composition of DNA, while the reproductive cells have half the amount of DNA found in the body cells
    2. the proteins are the same from cell to cell in an individual, but the DNA differs; thus the DNA must be the material that makes different tissues different
    3. DNA is the largest type of macromolecule found in living organisms
    4. DNA is found only in the cell nucleus

  59. Which situation is the result of crossing-over during meiosis?
    1. Genes are duplicated exactly, ensuring that offspring will be identical to the parents
    2. Chromatids thicken and align themselves helping to ensure genetic continuity
    3. Chromatids fail to sort independently, creating abnormal chromosome numbers
    4. Genes are rearranged, increasing the variability of the offspring

  60. Meiosis is biologically significant because:
    1. it halves the chromosome number
    2. it requires two steps
    3. it produces daughter cells
    4. most cell divide mitotically

    Base your answers to the following questions on the diagram below which represents a process that takes place in the human male reproductive system and your knowledge of biology.

  61. Which process is represented in the diagram?
    1. meiosis
    2. fertilization
    3. blending inheritance
    4. mitosis

  62. If Cell A contains 40 chromosomes, Cell B would normally contain:
    1. 10 chromosomes
    2. 20 chromosomes
    3. 60 chromosomes
    4. 80 chromosomes

  63. Which structure is represented by Cell B?
    1. a fertilized egg cell
    2. a sperm cell

  64. Which is the correct sequence of these stages in mitosis?
    1. A, B, C, D
    2. C, B, D, A
    3. D, C, B, A
    4. D, B, A, C

  65. A virus basically consists of:
    1. RNA or DNA and a cell membrane
    2. RNA or DNA and a protein coat
    3. proteins and a cell membrane
    4. DNA, RNA and a protein coat

  66. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    1. Viruses cannot reproduce outside of a living host cell.
    2. Prions are infectious insects.
    3. Viroids have a lipid covering.
    4. No known viruses are responsible for any form of cancer.

  67. Viruses that attack bacteria are known as:
    1. prions
    2. herpes
    3. bacteriophages
    4. viroids

  68. Which of these is a viral disease?
    1. botulism
    2. Lyme Disease
    3. syphilis
    4. plague
    5. none of these are viral diseases

  69. Short strands of RNA that invade the nuclei of plant cells and direct the synthesis of new copies of themselves are:
    1. bacteria
    2. prions
    3. viruses
    4. viroids

  70. Diseases of the nervous system such as kuru and scabies are caused by these particles which lack genetic material.
    1. viruses
    2. prions
    3. viroids
    4. Archaebacteria

  71. It has been said that viruses are not cellular and are often considered to be nonliving. Which of the following characteristics supports this conclusion?
    1. Viruses contain DNA or RNA as genetic material.
    2. Viruses cannot reproduce on their own.
    3. Viruses are unable to grow or divide.
    4. Viruses have no membrane or cytoplasm of their own.
    5. All except (a) support this conclusion

  72. European cattle owners, particularly in France, Germany and Spain are concerned that their herds are becoming infected with BSE better known as "mad-cow" disease which is caused by:
    1. bacteria
    2. prions
    3. viruses
    4. sporozoans

  73. Both the HIV and the herpes virus are examples of retroviruses. This means that:
    1. they contain single stranded RNA
    2. they contain single stranded DNA
    3. the enzyme reverse transcriptase is required for replication
    4. only choices a and b are correct
    5. only choices a and c are correct

  74. The life processes of all bacterial cells involve:
    1. atmospheric oxygen
    2. enzymes
    3. pigments
    4. capsules

  75. Which of these processes are involved in prokaryotic reproduction?
    1. binary fission

    2. bacterial conjugation
    3. endospores
    4. mitosis

  76. Bacterial cells differ from eucaryotic cells by:
    1. lacking cell walls and flagella
    2. possessing cell walls and flagella
    3. lacking true nuclei and mitochondria
    4. possessing true nuclei and mitochondria

  77. It has been said that bacteria are essential for the existence of life on Earth. Which of the following would be the essential function served by bacteria?
    1. control of insects
    2. directly provide food for humans
    3. decompose organic materials and recycle elements
    4. cause disease
    5. produce humn growth requirements such as insulin

  78. Endospore formation in bacteria:
    1. is characteristic of all Gram + aerobic rods
    2. allows for increase movement
    3. is a reproductive process
    4. is a survival structure

  79. What are some ways that Archae differ from other bacteria?
    1. different cell membrane lipids
    2. cell wall composition
    3. ribosomal RNA structure
    4. a and b above
    5. all of the above

  80. A circular fragment of DNA located outside the bacterial chromosome and containing genes for various functions and enzymes is called a:
    1. plasmid
    2. operon
    3. endogenome
    4. apostelate

  81. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?
    1. influenza (the flu)
    2. common cold
    3. AIDS
    4. tetanus

  82. An organism having pili has the advantage over one which lacks pili because it can:
    1. move actively
    2. obtain nutrients form beef broth
    3. stain easily
    4. attach to various surfaces including tissue such as the throat
    5. synthesize glycoproteins

  83. Reasearchers have found some pathogenic species of bacteria that have developed resistance to antibiotics. What can be done to slow the spread of this problem?
    1. Reduce the antibioitcs routinely included in animal feed
    2. Avoid prescribing antibiotic treatment to patients that do not need them
    3. Cause extinction of the viruses which cause disease by using antibiotics every time a person is sick
    4. all of the above
    5. only a and b above

  84. A particularly severe form of food poisoning is caused by which of the following bacteria that has developed resistance to antibiotics.
    1. Plasmodium
    2. Streptococcus
    3. Sarcodines
    4. Salmonella

  85. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are mostly associated with:
    1. all flowering plants
    2. ferns
    3. grasses
    4. legumes

  86. Nitrogen sources are used by the cell to synthesize:
    1. glucose
    2. amino acids
    3. trace elements
    4. hydrobutyric acid

  87. Which protists are entirely parasitic and have no means of locomotion?
    1. ciliates
    2. zooflagellates
    3. sporozoans
    4. sarcodines

  88. Which protists use flagella for locomotion?
    1. cilitates
    2. slime molds
    3. diatoms
    4. Trypanosomes

  89. Which of the following pairs of organisms is INCORRECT?
    1. prions - kuru
    2. archaen - AIDS
    3. bacteria - gonorrhea
    4. retrovirus - herpes

  90. Which of the following is a parasitic sporozoan that causes malaria if it infects a human host?
    1. Giardia
    2. Plasmodium
    3. Plasmophthora
    4. Trypanosoma

  91. A parasitic zooflagellate which may be present in clear mountain water presents a major health problem to backpackers and hikers if they drink the water. This organism causes severe diarrhea, nausea, cramps, and vomiting. The organism responsible is:
    1. Salmonella
    2. Giardia
    3. Streptococcus
    4. Beaver Fever

  92. Free-floating, photosynthetic, microscopic, unicellular members of the Kingdom Protista are the:
    1. phytoplankton
    2. cyanobacteria
    3. Salmonella
    4. amebas

  93. The organisms responsible for "red tides" are:
    1. dinoflagellates
    2. radiolarians
    3. amebas
    4. erythroflagellates

  94. Which unicellular algae form "glassy" shells consisting of top and bottom halves that fit together like pill boxes?
    1. diatoms
    2. dinoflagellates
    3. radiolarians
    4. euglena

  95. If these marine, bioluminescent protists are disturbed they may light up the water as a boat passes through it. They are:
    1. dinoflagellates
    2. radiolarians
    3. amebas
    4. euglena

  96. Which of the following has a simple light-sensitive region?
    1. euglena
    2. Gonyalux
    3. dinoflagellate
    4. yeast

  97. Which of the following are fungus-like protists?
    1. water molds
    2. red algae
    3. green algae
    4. dinoflagellates

    Matching: Match the name of the correct genus on the right with the condition or term to which it most closely relates. Place the correct letter in the corresponding space next to the condition or term.

    98. Lyme Disease _______________ a. Borrelia
    .b. Clostridium
    99. so called "flesh-eater"_______________ c. Giardia
    .d. Gonorhhea
    100. nerve toxins produced _______________ e. Streptococcus
    .f. Trypanosoma
    101. S. T. D._______________ g. Yersinia
    .
    102. the plague_______________

  1. In most ecosystems, the mushroom functions as a:
    1. herbivore
    2. decomposer
    3. predator
    4. autotroph

  2. Ascomycetes can damage cotton garments (clothing) because they produce:
    1. disease-causing spores
    2. smuts
    3. cellulase enzymes
    4. fruiting bodies

  3. Claviceps purpurea is an organism that infects rye plants and releases hallucinogenic substances from structures called ergots. To which division of the Fungi do they belong?
    1. Zygomycota
    2. Ascomycota
    3. Basidiomycota
    4. Deuteromycota

  4. Yeasts are:
    1. unicellular fungi
    2. phytoplankton
    3. bacteria
    4. protists

  5. Which of these characteristics are typical of the fungi?
    1. photosynthetic
    2. chitin in cell walls
    3. all are saprobes
    4. all are correct

  6. An organism composed of a Basidiomycota and a photosynthetic cyanobacterium is called a(n):
    1. liverwort
    2. lichen
    3. imperfect fungus
    4. green monster

  7. What term refers to the mass of cobwebby strands that form the body of most fungi?
    1. hyphae
    2. mycelium
    3. sporangia
    4. basidium

  8. Which of these economic conditions is NOT caused by a fungus?
    1. corn smut
    2. Mad Cow disease
    3. Dutch Elm disease
    4. ringworm

  9. An antheridium produces:
    1. spores
    2. eggs
    3. gametophytes
    4. zygotes
    5. none of these

  10. Basidia are found among the:
    1. yeast
    2. bread molds
    3. protozoa
    4. mushrooms

  11. Fungi obtain food by:
    1. ameboid trapping of large food molecules
    2. the manufacture of their own requirements using energy obtained from inorganic molecules
    3. the secretion of enzymes into the surrounding materials and the absorption of digested substances into the cells
    4. all of the above

  12. Mycorrhizal fungi interact with what part of a plant?
    1. roots
    2. leaves
    3. stems
    4. fruits

  13. The diagram is of an organism whose shape resembles a leaf cross section.
    It is most likely a:
    1. a. lichen
    2. fern
    3. cyanobacteria
    4. dinoflagellate

  14. A gametophyte plant is produced by:
    1. spores
    2. female bacteria
    3. male gametes
    4. diploid zygotes

  15. Which of the following structures would you expect to find in the wheat rust fungus?
    1. ascospores
    2. zygospores
    3. basidiospores
    4. deuterospores

  16. The fungi most widely distributed and most successful in the forest are characterized by:
    1. rapid germination of spores
    2. good enzyme production
    3. production of substances toxic to other organisms
    4. tolerance of antibiotic substances produced by other organisms
    5. all of the above
    6. choices a and d only

  17. Archegonia and antheridia are:
    1. water conducting tissues
    2. reproductive structures
    3. vascular tissue in ferns
    4. parts of a flower

  18. In which of the following plant groups is the gametophyte the dominant generation?
    1. mosses
    2. ferns
    3. pine trees
    4. sunflowers

  19. Land plants are believed to have evolved from the:
    1. green algae
    2. lichens
    3. fungi
    4. cyanobacteria

  20. Which type of algae may deposit calcium carbonate in their tissues and contribute to coral reef formation?
    1. Anthophyta
    2. Chlorophyta
    3. Phaeophyta
    4. Rhodophyta

  21. What type of algae is an important source of carrageenan which is used to thicken paints, cosmetics, and ice cream:
    1. Anthophyta
    2. Chlorophyta
    3. Phaeophyta
    4. Rhodophyta

  22. Vascular plants are referred to as:
    1. Tracheophytes
    2. Bryophytes
    3. Chlorophytes
    4. Phaeophytes

  23. When making the move from water to land, plants made modifications in all of the following EXCEPT:
    1. cell wall composition
    2. conducting tissues
    3. cell surface coverings
    4. method of gas exchange

  24. In the Bryophytes, what is the relationship of the sporophyte generation to the gametophyte generation?
    1. Sporophyte is dominant, but begins development attached to gametophyte
    2. Gametophyte is dominant, sporophyte retained on gametophyte
    3. Sporophyte is dominant and gametophyte is microscopic
    4. Members of this division do not produce sporophytes.

  25. Which of the following types of plants produce seeds?
    1. horsetails
    2. ferns
    3. ginkgo
    4. pines
    5. c and d

  26. Three major adaptations have allowed Angiosperms to become dominant in terrestrial environments. They are:
    1. flowers, fruits, vascular tissue
    2. flowers, seeds, and roots
    3. flowers, fruit, and broad leaves
    4. fruits, seeds, and roots

  27. Which group dominated the Carboniferous Period and is now burned as coal?
    1. angiosperms
    2. conifers
    3. cycads
    4. seedless vascular plants

  28. Which group does not depend on water for reproduction?
    1. ferns
    2. algae
    3. bryophytes
    4. flowering plants

  29. Monocots and dicots are:
    1. chlorophytes
    2. gymnosperms
    3. bryophytes
    4. angiosperms

  30. In Angiosperms, the male gametophyte is:
    a. the pollen
    b. the anther
    c. the flower
    d. the seed

  31. A fruit is:
    a. a seed
    b. a mature ovary
    c. a mature pistil
    d. a plant embryo

  32. The terms monocot and dicot refer to:
    a. amount of stored food in seed
    b. number of stamens
    c. number of pistils
    d. number of stigmatic surfaces

    Matching: Match each of the following organisms or terms on the left with their appropriate fungal classification on the right. Place the correct letter in the corresponding space next to the name of the organism or term. >
    OrganismCLASSIFICATION
    135. Amanita_______________
    A. Zygomycota
    136. Arthrobotrys_______________
    B. Ascomycota
    137. Candida_______________
    C. Basidiomycota
    138.Claviceps_______________
    D. Deuteromycota
    139. Gonyaulax_______________
    E. Not a fungus
    140. Navicula_______________
    141. Penicillium_______________
    142. Physarum_______________
    143. potato blight_______________
    144. Rhizopus_______________
    145. Ringworm_______________
    146. Saccharomyces_______________

    The following questions are based on the Generalized Life Cycle of Plants. This process is known as Alternation of Generations. The Fern Life Cycle will be used to illustrate the process and will be the basis of the questions.

    1. The fern that we are accustomed to seeing in the forests is an example of which generation? (Letter B in the diagram)____________________

    2. Structures labelled as C on the diagram are known as:___________________

    3. Structures labelled as D on the diagram are produced by a structure known as the:____________________

    4. Structure A is called a:____________________

    5. The genetic makeup of Structure B is: (haploid or diploid)

    6. The genetic makeup of Structure A is: (haploid or diploid)